Technician Flash Cards

Which of the following is part of the Basis and Purpose of the Amateur Radio Service?

1/411

Which agency regulates and enforces the rules for the Amateur Radio Service in the United States?

2/411

What do the FCC rules state regarding the use of a phonetic alphabet for station identification in the Amateur Radio Service?

3/411

How many operator/primary station license grants may be held by any one person?

4/411

What proves that the FCC has issued an operator/primary license grant?

5/411

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a beacon?

6/411

What is the FCC Part 97 definition of a space station?

7/411

Which of the following entities recommends transmit/receive channels and other parameters for auxiliary and repeater stations?

8/411

Who selects a Frequency Coordinator?

9/411

What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)?

10/411

When is willful interference to other amateur radio stations permitted?

11/411

Which of the following frequency ranges are available for phone operation by Technician licensees?

12/411

Which amateurs may contact the International Space Station (ISS) on VHF bands?

13/411

Which frequency is in the 6 meter amateur band?

14/411

Which amateur band includes 146.52 MHz?

15/411

How may amateurs use the 219 to 220 MHz segment of 1.25 meter band?

16/411

On which HF bands does a Technician class operator have phone privileges?

17/411

Which of the following VHF/UHF band segments are limited to CW only?

18/411

How are US amateurs restricted in segments of bands where the Amateur Radio Service is secondary?

19/411

Why should you not set your transmit frequency to be exactly at the edge of an amateur band or sub-band?

20/411

Where may SSB phone be used in amateur bands above 50 MHz?

21/411

What is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators in their HF band segments?

22/411

Except for some specific restrictions, what is the maximum peak envelope power output for Technician class operators using frequencies above 30 MHz?

23/411

For which license classes are new licenses currently available from the FCC?

24/411

Who may select a desired call sign under the vanity call sign rules?

25/411

What types of international communications are an FCC-licensed amateur radio station permitted to make?

26/411

What may happen if the FCC is unable to reach you by email?

27/411

Which of the following is a valid Technician class call sign format?

28/411

From which of the following locations may an FCC-licensed amateur station transmit?

29/411

Which of the following can result in revocation of the station license or suspension of the operator license?

30/411

What is the normal term for an FCC-issued amateur radio license?

31/411

What is the grace period for renewal if an amateur license expires?

32/411

How soon after passing the examination for your first amateur radio license may you transmit on the amateur radio bands?

33/411

If your license has expired and is still within the allowable grace period, may you continue to transmit on the amateur radio bands?

34/411

With which countries are FCC-licensed amateur radio stations prohibited from exchanging communications?

35/411

Under which of the following circumstances are one-way transmissions by an amateur station prohibited?

36/411

When is it permissible to transmit messages encoded to obscure their meaning?

37/411

Under what conditions is an amateur station authorized to transmit music using a phone emission?

38/411

When may amateur radio operators use their stations to notify other amateurs of the availability of equipment for sale or trade?

39/411

What, if any, are the restrictions concerning transmission of language that may be considered indecent or obscene?

40/411

What types of amateur stations can automatically retransmit the signals of other amateur stations?

41/411

In which of the following circumstances may the control operator of an amateur station receive compensation for operating that station?

42/411

When may amateur stations transmit information in support of broadcasting, program production, or news gathering, assuming no other means is available?

43/411

How does the FCC define broadcasting for the Amateur Radio Service?

44/411

When may an amateur station transmit without identifying on the air?

45/411

When may an amateur station transmit without a control operator?

46/411

Who may be the control operator of a station communicating through an amateur satellite or space station?

47/411

Who must designate the station control operator?

48/411

What determines the transmitting frequency privileges of an amateur station?

49/411

What is an amateur station's control point?

50/411

When, under normal circumstances, may a Technician class licensee be the control operator of a station operating in an Amateur Extra Class band segment?

51/411

When the control operator is not the station licensee, who is responsible for the proper operation of the station?

52/411

Which of the following is an example of automatic control?

53/411

Which of the following are required for remote control operation?

54/411

Which of the following is an example of remote control as defined in Part 97?

55/411

Who does the FCC presume to be the control operator of an amateur station, unless documentation to the contrary is in the station records?

56/411

When must the station and its records be available for FCC inspection?

57/411

How often must you identify with your FCC-assigned call sign when using tactical call signs such as "Race Headquarters"?

58/411

When are you required to transmit your assigned call sign?

59/411

What language may you use for identification when operating in a phone sub-band?

60/411

What method of call sign identification is required for a station transmitting phone signals?

61/411

Which of the following self-assigned indicators are acceptable when using a phone transmission?

62/411

Which of the following restrictions apply when a non-licensed person is allowed to speak to a foreign station using a station under the control of a licensed amateur operator?

63/411

What is the definition of third party communications?

64/411

What type of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signal of another amateur station on a different channel or channels?

65/411

Who is accountable if a repeater inadvertently retransmits communications that violate the FCC rules?

66/411

Which of the following is a requirement for the issuance of a club station license grant?

67/411

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 2 meter band?

68/411

What is the national calling frequency for FM simplex operations in the 2 meter band?

69/411

What is a common repeater frequency offset in the 70 cm band?

70/411

What is an appropriate way to call another station on a repeater if you know the other station's call sign?

71/411

How should you respond to a station calling CQ?

72/411

Which of the following is required when making on-the-air test transmissions?

73/411

What is meant by "repeater offset"?

74/411

What is the meaning of the procedural signal "CQ"?

75/411

Which of the following indicates that a station is listening on a repeater and looking for a contact?

76/411

What is a band plan, beyond the privileges established by the FCC?

77/411

What term describes an amateur station that is transmitting and receiving on the same frequency?

78/411

What should you do before calling CQ?

79/411

How is a VHF/UHF transceiver's "reverse" function used?

80/411

What term describes the use of a sub-audible tone transmitted along with normal voice audio to open the squelch of a receiver?

81/411

Which of the following describes a linked repeater network?

82/411

Which of the following could be the reason you are unable to access a repeater whose output you can hear?

83/411

What would cause your FM transmission audio to be distorted on voice peaks?

84/411

What type of signaling uses pairs of audio tones?

85/411

How can you join a digital repeater's "talkgroup"?

86/411

Which of the following applies when two stations transmitting on the same frequency interfere with each other?

87/411

Why are simplex channels designated in the VHF/UHF band plans?

88/411

Which Q signal indicates that you are receiving interference from other stations?

89/411

Which Q signal indicates that you are changing frequency?

90/411

What is the purpose of the color code used on DMR repeater systems?

91/411

What is the purpose of a squelch function?

92/411

When do FCC rules NOT apply to the operation of an amateur station?

93/411

Which of the following are typical duties of a Net Control Station?

94/411

What technique is used to ensure that voice messages containing unusual words are received correctly?

95/411

What is RACES?

96/411

What does the term "traffic" refer to in net operation?

97/411

What is the Amateur Radio Emergency Service (ARES)?

98/411

Which of the following is standard practice when you participate in a net?

99/411

Which of the following is a characteristic of good traffic handling?

100/411

Are amateur station control operators ever permitted to operate outside the frequency privileges of their license class?

101/411

What information is contained in the preamble of a formal traffic message?

102/411

What is meant by "check" in a radiogram header?

103/411

Why do VHF signal strengths sometimes vary greatly when the antenna is moved only a few feet?

104/411

What is the effect of vegetation on UHF and microwave signals?

105/411

What antenna polarization is normally used for long-distance CW and SSB contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

106/411

What happens when antennas at opposite ends of a VHF or UHF line of sight radio link are not using the same polarization?

107/411

When using a directional antenna, how might your station be able to communicate with a distant repeater if buildings or obstructions are blocking the direct line of sight path?

108/411

What is the meaning of the term "picket fencing"?

109/411

What weather condition might decrease range at microwave frequencies?

110/411

What is a likely cause of irregular fading of signals propagated by the ionosphere?

111/411

Which of the following results from the fact that signals propagated by the ionosphere are elliptically polarized?

112/411

What effect does multi-path propagation have on data transmissions?

113/411

Which region of the atmosphere can refract or bend HF and VHF radio waves?

114/411

What is the effect of fog and rain on signals in the 10 meter and 6 meter bands?

115/411

What is the relationship between the electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave?

116/411

What property of a radio wave defines its polarization?

117/411

What are the two components of a radio wave?

118/411

What is the velocity of a radio wave traveling through free space?

119/411

What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?

120/411

What is the formula for converting frequency to approximate wavelength in meters?

121/411

In addition to frequency, which of the following is used to identify amateur radio bands?

122/411

What frequency range is referred to as VHF?

123/411

What frequency range is referred to as UHF?

124/411

What frequency range is referred to as HF?

125/411

What is the approximate velocity of a radio wave in free space?

126/411

Why are simplex UHF signals rarely heard beyond their radio horizon?

127/411

What is a characteristic of HF communication compared with communications on VHF and higher frequencies?

128/411

What is a characteristic of VHF signals received via auroral backscatter?

129/411

Which of the following types of propagation is most commonly associated with occasional strong signals on the 10, 6, and 2 meter bands from beyond the radio horizon?

130/411

Which of the following effects may allow radio signals to travel beyond obstructions between the transmitting and receiving stations?

131/411

What type of propagation is responsible for allowing over-the-horizon VHF and UHF communications to ranges of approximately 300 miles on a regular basis?

132/411

What band is best suited for communicating via meteor scatter?

133/411

What causes tropospheric ducting?

134/411

What is generally the best time for long-distance 10 meter band propagation via the F region?

135/411

Which of the following bands may provide long-distance communications via the ionosphere's F region during the peak of the sunspot cycle?

136/411

Why is the radio horizon for VHF and UHF signals more distant than the visual horizon?

137/411

Which of the following is an appropriate power supply rating for a typical 50 watt output mobile FM transceiver?

138/411

Which of the following should be considered when selecting an accessory SWR meter?

139/411

Why are short, heavy-gauge wires used for a transceiver's DC power connection?

140/411

How are the transceiver audio input and output connected in a station configured to operate using FT8?

141/411

Where should an RF power meter be installed?

142/411

What signals are used in a computer-radio interface for digital mode operation?

143/411

Which of the following connections is made between a computer and a transceiver to use computer software when operating digital modes?

144/411

Which of the following conductors is preferred for bonding at RF?

145/411

How can you determine the length of time that equipment can be powered from a battery?

146/411

What function is performed with a transceiver and a digital mode hot spot?

147/411

Where should the negative power return of a mobile transceiver be connected in a vehicle?

148/411

What is an electronic keyer?

149/411

What is the effect of excessive microphone gain on SSB transmissions?

150/411

Which of the following can be used to enter a transceiver's operating frequency?

151/411

How is squelch adjusted so that a weak FM signal can be heard?

152/411

What is a way to enable quick access to a favorite frequency or channel on your transceiver?

153/411

What does the scanning function of an FM transceiver do?

154/411

Which of the following controls could be used if the voice pitch of a single-sideband signal returning to your CQ call seems too high or low?

155/411

What does a DMR "code plug" contain?

156/411

What is the advantage of having multiple receive bandwidth choices on a multimode transceiver?

157/411

How is a specific group of stations selected on a digital voice transceiver?

158/411

Which of the following receiver filter bandwidths provides the best signal-to-noise ratio for SSB reception?

159/411

Which of the following must be programmed into a D-STAR digital transceiver before transmitting?

160/411

What is the result of tuning an FM receiver above or below a signal's frequency?

161/411

Electrical current is measured in which of the following units?

162/411

Electrical power is measured in which of the following units?

163/411

What is the name for the flow of electrons in an electric circuit?

164/411

What are the units of electrical resistance?

165/411

What is the electrical term for the force that causes electron flow?

166/411

What is the unit of frequency?

167/411

Why are metals generally good conductors of electricity?

168/411

Which of the following is a good electrical insulator?

169/411

Which of the following describes alternating current?

170/411

Which term describes the rate at which electrical energy is used?

171/411

What type of current flow is opposed by resistance?

172/411

What describes the number of times per second that an alternating current makes a complete cycle?

173/411

How many milliamperes is 1.5 amperes?

174/411

Which is equal to 1,500,000 hertz?

175/411

Which is equal to one kilovolt?

176/411

Which is equal to one microvolt?

177/411

Which is equal to 500 milliwatts?

178/411

Which is equal to 3000 milliamperes?

179/411

Which is equal to 3.525 MHz?

180/411

Which is equal to 1,000,000 picofarads?

181/411

Which decibel value most closely represents a power increase from 5 watts to 10 watts?

182/411

Which decibel value most closely represents a power decrease from 12 watts to 3 watts?

183/411

Which decibel value represents a power increase from 20 watts to 200 watts?

184/411

Which is equal to 28400 kHz?

185/411

Which is equal to 2425 MHz?

186/411

What describes the ability to store energy in an electric field?

187/411

What is the unit of capacitance?

188/411

What describes the ability to store energy in a magnetic field?

189/411

What is the unit of inductance?

190/411

What is the unit of impedance?

191/411

What does the abbreviation "RF" mean?

192/411

What is the abbreviation for megahertz?

193/411

What is the formula used to calculate electrical power (P) in a DC circuit?

194/411

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 13.8 volts DC and a current of 10 amperes?

195/411

How much power is delivered by a voltage of 12 volts DC and a current of 2.5 amperes?

196/411

How much current is required to deliver 120 watts at a voltage of 12 volts DC?

197/411

What is impedance?

198/411

What is the abbreviation for kilohertz?

199/411

What formula is used to calculate current in a circuit?

200/411

What formula is used to calculate voltage in a circuit?

201/411

What formula is used to calculate resistance in a circuit?

202/411

What is the resistance of a circuit in which a current of 3 amperes flows when connected to 90 volts?

203/411

What is the resistance of a circuit for which the applied voltage is 12 volts and the current flow is 1.5 amperes?

204/411

What is the resistance of a circuit that draws 4 amperes from a 12-volt source?

205/411

What is the current in a circuit with an applied voltage of 120 volts and a resistance of 80 ohms?

206/411

What is the current through a 100-ohm resistor connected across 200 volts?

207/411

What is the current through a 24-ohm resistor connected across 240 volts?

208/411

What is the voltage across a 2-ohm resistor if a current of 0.5 amperes flows through it?

209/411

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 1 ampere flows through it?

210/411

What is the voltage across a 10-ohm resistor if a current of 2 amperes flows through it?

211/411

In which type of circuit is DC current the same through all components?

212/411

In which type of circuit is voltage the same across all components?

213/411

What electrical component opposes the flow of current in a DC circuit?

214/411

What type of component is often used as an adjustable volume control?

215/411

What electrical parameter is controlled by a potentiometer?

216/411

What electrical component stores energy in an electric field?

217/411

What type of electrical component consists of conductive surfaces separated by an insulator?

218/411

What type of electrical component stores energy in a magnetic field?

219/411

What electrical component is typically constructed as a coil of wire?

220/411

What is the function of an SPDT switch?

221/411

What electrical component is used to protect other circuit components from current overloads?

222/411

Which of the following battery chemistries is rechargeable?

223/411

Which of the following battery chemistries is not rechargeable?

224/411

What type of switch is represented by component 3 in figure T-2?

225/411

Which is true about forward voltage drop in a diode?

226/411

What electronic component allows current to flow in only one direction?

227/411

Which of these components can be used as an electronic switch?

228/411

Which of the following components can consist of three regions of semiconductor material?

229/411

What type of transistor has a gate, drain, and source?

230/411

How is the cathode lead of a semiconductor diode often marked on the package?

231/411

What causes a light-emitting diode (LED) to emit light?

232/411

What does the abbreviation FET stand for?

233/411

What are the names for the electrodes of a diode?

234/411

Which of the following can provide power gain?

235/411

What is the term that describes a device's ability to amplify a signal?

236/411

What are the names of the electrodes of a bipolar junction transistor?

237/411

What is the name of an electrical wiring diagram that uses standard component symbols?

238/411

What is component 1 in figure T-1?

239/411

What is component 2 in figure T-1?

240/411

What is component 3 in figure T-1?

241/411

What is component 4 in figure T-1?

242/411

What is component 6 in figure T-2?

243/411

What is component 8 in figure T-2?

244/411

What is component 9 in figure T-2?

245/411

What is component 4 in figure T-2?

246/411

What is component 3 in figure T-3?

247/411

What is component 4 in figure T-3?

248/411

Which of the following is accurately represented in electrical schematics?

249/411

Which of the following devices or circuits changes an alternating current into a varying direct current signal?

250/411

What is a relay?

251/411

Which of the following is a reason to use shielded wire?

252/411

Which of the following displays an electrical quantity as a numeric value?

253/411

What type of circuit controls the amount of voltage from a power supply?

254/411

What component changes 120 V AC power to a lower AC voltage for other uses?

255/411

Which of the following is commonly used as a visual indicator?

256/411

Which of the following is combined with an inductor to make a resonant circuit?

257/411

What is the name of a device that combines several semiconductors and other components into one package?

258/411

What is the function of component 2 in figure T-1?

259/411

Which of the following is a resonant or tuned circuit?

260/411

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to detect the presence of a signal?

261/411

What is a transceiver?

262/411

Which of the following is used to convert a signal from one frequency to another?

263/411

Which term describes the ability of a receiver to discriminate between multiple signals?

264/411

What is the name of a circuit that generates a signal at a specific frequency?

265/411

What device converts the RF input and output of a transceiver to another band?

266/411

What is the function of a transceiver's PTT input?

267/411

Which of the following describes combining speech with an RF carrier signal?

268/411

What is the function of the SSB/CW-FM switch on a VHF power amplifier?

269/411

What device increases the transmitted output power from a transceiver?

270/411

Where is an RF preamplifier installed?

271/411

What can you do if you are told your FM handheld or mobile transceiver is over-deviating?

272/411

What would cause a broadcast AM or FM radio to receive an amateur radio transmission unintentionally?

273/411

Which of the following can cause radio frequency interference?

274/411

Which of the following could you use to cure distorted audio caused by RF current on the shield of a microphone cable?

275/411

How can fundamental overload of a non-amateur radio or TV receiver by an amateur signal be reduced or eliminated?

276/411

Which of the following actions should you take if a neighbor tells you that your station's transmissions are interfering with their radio or TV reception?

277/411

Which of the following can reduce overload of a VHF transceiver by a nearby commercial FM station?

278/411

What should you do if something in a neighbor's home is causing harmful interference to your amateur station?

279/411

What should be the first step to resolve non-fiber optic cable TV interference caused by your amateur radio transmission?

280/411

What might be a problem if you receive a report that your audio signal through an FM repeater is distorted or unintelligible?

281/411

What is a symptom of RF feedback in a transmitter or transceiver?

282/411

What is the primary purpose of a dummy load?

283/411

Which of the following is used to determine if an antenna is resonant at the desired operating frequency?

284/411

What does a dummy load consist of?

285/411

What reading on an SWR meter indicates a perfect impedance match between the antenna and the feed line?

286/411

Why do most solid-state transmitters reduce output power as SWR increases beyond a certain level?

287/411

What does an SWR reading of 4:1 indicate?

288/411

What happens to power lost in a feed line?

289/411

Which instrument can be used to determine SWR?

290/411

Which of the following causes failure of coaxial cables?

291/411

Why should the outer jacket of coaxial cable be resistant to ultraviolet light?

292/411

What is a disadvantage of air core coaxial cable when compared to foam or solid dielectric types?

293/411

Which instrument would you use to measure electric potential?

294/411

How is a voltmeter connected to a component to measure applied voltage?

295/411

When configured to measure current, how is a multimeter connected to a component?

296/411

Which instrument is used to measure electric current?

297/411

Which of the following can damage a multimeter?

298/411

Which of the following measurements are made using a multimeter?

299/411

Which of the following types of solder should not be used for radio and electronic applications?

300/411

What is the characteristic appearance of a cold tin-lead solder joint?

301/411

What reading indicates that an ohmmeter is connected across a large, discharged capacitor?

302/411

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring in-circuit resistance with an ohmmeter?

303/411

Which of the following is a form of amplitude modulation?

304/411

What type of modulation is commonly used for VHF packet radio transmissions?

305/411

Which type of voice mode is often used for long-distance (weak signal) contacts on the VHF and UHF bands?

306/411

Which type of modulation is commonly used for VHF and UHF voice repeaters?

307/411

Which of the following types of signal has the narrowest bandwidth?

308/411

Which sideband is normally used for 10 meter HF, VHF, and UHF single-sideband communications?

309/411

What is a characteristic of single sideband (SSB) compared to FM?

310/411

What is the approximate bandwidth of a typical single sideband (SSB) voice signal?

311/411

What is the approximate bandwidth of a VHF repeater FM voice signal?

312/411

What is the approximate bandwidth of AM fast-scan TV transmissions?

313/411

What is the approximate bandwidth required to transmit a CW signal?

314/411

Which of the following is a disadvantage of FM compared with single sideband?

315/411

What telemetry information is typically transmitted by satellite beacons?

316/411

What is the impact of using excessive effective radiated power on a satellite uplink?

317/411

Which of the following are provided by satellite tracking programs?

318/411

What mode of transmission is commonly used by amateur radio satellites?

319/411

What is a satellite beacon?

320/411

Which of the following are inputs to a satellite tracking program?

321/411

What is Doppler shift in reference to satellite communications?

322/411

What is meant by the statement that a satellite is operating in U/V mode?

323/411

What causes spin fading of satellite signals?

324/411

What is a LEO satellite?

325/411

Who may receive telemetry from a space station?

326/411

Which of the following is a way to determine whether your satellite uplink power is neither too low nor too high?

327/411

Which of the following methods is used to locate sources of noise interference or jamming?

328/411

Which of these items would be useful for a hidden transmitter hunt?

329/411

What operating activity involves contacting as many stations as possible during a specified period?

330/411

Which of the following is good procedure when contacting another station in a contest?

331/411

What is a grid locator?

332/411

How is over the air access to IRLP nodes accomplished?

333/411

What is Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?

334/411

What is the Internet Radio Linking Project (IRLP)?

335/411

Which of the following protocols enables an amateur station to transmit through a repeater without using a radio to initiate the transmission?

336/411

What is required before using the EchoLink system?

337/411

What is an amateur radio station that connects other amateur stations to the internet?

338/411

Which of the following is a digital communications mode?

339/411

What is a "talkgroup" on a DMR repeater?

340/411

What kind of data can be transmitted by APRS?

341/411

What type of transmission is indicated by the term "NTSC?"

342/411

Which of the following is an application of APRS?

343/411

What does the abbreviation "PSK" mean?

344/411

Which of the following describes DMR?

345/411

Which of the following is included in packet radio transmissions?

346/411

What is CW?

347/411

Which of the following operating activities is supported by digital mode software in the WSJT-X software suite?

348/411

What is an ARQ transmission system?

349/411

Which of the following best describes an amateur radio mesh network?

350/411

What is FT8?

351/411

What is a beam antenna?

352/411

Which of the following describes a type of antenna loading?

353/411

Which of the following describes a simple dipole oriented parallel to Earth's surface?

354/411

What is a disadvantage of the short, flexible antenna supplied with most handheld radio transceivers, compared to a full-sized quarter-wave antenna?

355/411

Which of the following increases the resonant frequency of a dipole antenna?

356/411

Which of the following types of antenna offers the greatest gain?

357/411

What is a disadvantage of using a handheld VHF transceiver with a flexible antenna inside a vehicle?

358/411

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a quarter-wavelength vertical antenna for 146 MHz?

359/411

What is the approximate length, in inches, of a half-wavelength 6 meter dipole antenna?

360/411

In which direction does a half-wave dipole antenna radiate the strongest signal?

361/411

What is antenna gain?

362/411

What is an advantage of a 5/8 wavelength whip antenna for VHF or UHF mobile service?

363/411

What is a benefit of low SWR?

364/411

What is the most common impedance of coaxial cables used in amateur radio?

365/411

Why is coaxial cable the most common feed line for amateur radio antenna systems?

366/411

What is the major function of an antenna tuner (antenna coupler)?

367/411

What happens as the frequency of a signal in coaxial cable is increased?

368/411

Which of the following RF connector types is most suitable for frequencies above 400 MHz?

369/411

Which of the following is true of PL-259 type coax connectors?

370/411

Which of the following is a source of loss in coaxial feed line?

371/411

What can cause erratic changes in SWR?

372/411

What is the electrical difference between RG-58 and RG-213 coaxial cable?

373/411

Which of the following types of feed line has the lowest loss at VHF and UHF?

374/411

What is standing wave ratio (SWR)?

375/411

Which of the following is a safety hazard of a 12-volt storage battery?

376/411

What health hazard is presented by electrical current flowing through the body?

377/411

In the United States, what circuit does black wire insulation indicate in a three-wire 120 V cable?

378/411

What is the purpose of a fuse in an electrical circuit?

379/411

Why should a 5-ampere fuse never be replaced with a 20-ampere fuse?

380/411

What is a good way to guard against electrical shock at your station?

381/411

Where should a lightning arrester be installed in a coaxial feed line?

382/411

Where should a fuse or circuit breaker be installed in a 120V AC power circuit?

383/411

What should be done to all external ground rods or earth connections?

384/411

What hazard is caused by charging or discharging a battery too quickly?

385/411

What hazard exists in a power supply immediately after turning it off?

386/411

Which of the following precautions should be taken when measuring high voltages with a voltmeter?

387/411

Which of the following is good practice when installing ground wires on a tower for lightning protection?

388/411

What is required when climbing an antenna tower?

389/411

Under what circumstances is it safe to climb a tower without a helper or observer?

390/411

Which of the following is an important safety precaution to observe when putting up an antenna tower?

391/411

What is the purpose of a safety wire through a turnbuckle used to tension guy lines?

392/411

What is the minimum safe distance from a power line to allow when installing an antenna?

393/411

Which of the following is an important safety rule to remember when using a crank-up tower?

394/411

Which is a proper grounding method for a tower?

395/411

Why should you avoid attaching an antenna to a utility pole?

396/411

Which of the following is true when installing grounding conductors used for lightning protection?

397/411

Which of the following establishes grounding requirements for an amateur radio tower or antenna?

398/411

What type of radiation are radio signals?

399/411

At which of the following frequencies does maximum permissible exposure have the lowest value?

400/411

How does the allowable power density for RF safety change if duty cycle changes from 100 percent to 50 percent?

401/411

What factors affect the RF exposure of people near an amateur station antenna?

402/411

Why do exposure limits vary with frequency?

403/411

Which of the following is an acceptable method to determine whether your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

404/411

What hazard is created by touching an antenna during a transmission?

405/411

Which of the following actions can reduce exposure to RF radiation?

406/411

How can you make sure your station stays in compliance with RF safety regulations?

407/411

Why is duty cycle one of the factors used to determine safe RF radiation exposure levels?

408/411

What is the definition of duty cycle during the averaging time for RF exposure?

409/411

How does RF radiation differ from ionizing radiation (radioactivity)?

410/411

Who is responsible for ensuring that no person is exposed to RF energy above the FCC exposure limits?

411/411