General Question Pool

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

Where the feed lines enter the building
On the antenna, opposite the feed point
In series with each ground lead
At the closest power pole ground electrode

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

To prevent unauthorized changes to the circuit that would void the manufacturer's warranty
To shut down the unit if it becomes too hot
To ensure that dangerous voltages are removed if the cabinet is opened
To shut off the power supply if too much voltage is produced

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

They must be bonded to all buried water and gas lines
Bends in ground wires must be made as close as possible to a right angle
Lightning grounds must be connected to all ungrounded wiring
They must be bonded together with all other grounds

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

Lead can contaminate food if hands are not washed carefully after handling the solder
High voltages can cause lead-tin solder to disintegrate suddenly
Tin in the solder can “cold flow,” causing shorts in the circuit
RF energy can convert the lead into a poisonous gas

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

The generator should be operated in a well-ventilated area
The generator must be insulated from ground
Fuel should be stored near the generator for rapid refueling in case of an emergency
All these choices are correct

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

Notify the electric company that a person will be working on the tower
Make sure all circuits that supply power to the tower are locked out and tagged
Unground the base of the tower
All these choices are correct

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

Always hold on to the tower with one hand
Confirm that the harness is rated for the weight of the climber and that it is within its allowable service life
Ensure that all heavy tools are securely fastened to the harness
All these choices are correct

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

Acceptable bandwidth limits
Acceptable modulation limits
Electrical safety of the station
RF exposure limits of the human body

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires to the neutral wire
Current flowing from one or more of the hot wires directly to ground
Overvoltage on the hot wires
All these choices are correct

Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

As close to the station equipment as possible
Outside the building
Next to the closest power pole
Parallel to the water supply line

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

30 amperes
25 amperes
20 amperes
15 amperes

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

AWG number 20
AWG number 16
AWG number 12
AWG number 8

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

Only the hot wires
Only the neutral wire
Only the ground wire
All wires

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

All commercial stations; amateur radio stations are exempt
Only stations with antennas lower than one wavelength above the ground
Only stations transmitting more than 500 watts PEP
All stations with a time-averaged transmission of more than one milliwatt

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

Locate the antenna close to your operating position to minimize feed-line radiation
Position the antenna along the edge of a wall to reduce parasitic radiation
Make sure that MPE limits are not exceeded in occupied areas
Make sure the antenna is properly shielded

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

Change to a non-polarized antenna with higher gain
Use an antenna with a higher front-to-back ratio
Take precautions to ensure that the antenna cannot be pointed in their direction when they are present
All these choices are correct

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

A receiver with digital signal processing (DSP) noise reduction
A calibrated field strength meter with a calibrated antenna
An SWR meter with a peak-reading function
An oscilloscope with a high-stability crystal marker generator

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

Post a copy of FCC Part 97.13 in the station
Notify neighbors within a 100-foot radius of the antenna of the existence of the station and power levels
Perform a routine RF exposure evaluation and prevent access to any identified high exposure areas
All these choices are correct

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

A lower duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
A higher duty cycle permits greater power levels to be transmitted
Low duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure evaluation requirements
High duty cycle transmitters are exempt from RF exposure requirements

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with FCC OET Bulletin 65
Contact the FCC for permission to transmit
Perform an RF exposure evaluation in accordance with World Meteorological Organization guidelines
Use an FCC-approved band-pass filter

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields
File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC
Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the controlled MPE limits
All these choices are correct

What does "time averaging" mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

The average amount of power developed by the transmitter over a specific 24-hour period
The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long-term effect on the body
The total time of the exposure
The total RF exposure averaged over a certain period

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

By calculation based on FCC OET Bulletin 65
By calculation based on computer modeling
By measurement of field strength using calibrated equipment
All these choices are correct

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

Its duty cycle
Its frequency
Its power density
All these choices are correct

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

It heats body tissue
It causes radiation poisoning
It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level
It cools body tissue

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

Inverted V
Inverted L
Sloper
Lazy H

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

They present low impedance on all design frequencies
They must be used with an antenna tuner
They must be fed with open wire line
They have poor harmonic rejection

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

In the plane of the loop
Broadside to the loop
Broadside and in the plane of the loop
Electrically small loops are omnidirectional

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

Directional receiving for MF and low HF bands
Directional transmitting for low HF bands
Portable direction finding at higher HF frequencies
Portable direction finding at lower HF frequencies

How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

By varying its body capacitance
By varying the base loading inductance
By extending and retracting the whip
By deploying a capacitance hat

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

Element length and spacing vary logarithmically along the boom
Impedance varies periodically as a function of frequency
Gain varies logarithmically as a function of frequency
SWR varies periodically as a function of boom length

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

Wide bandwidth
Higher gain per element than a Yagi antenna
Harmonic suppression
Polarization diversity

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

It allows quick selection of vertical or horizontal polarization
It allows simultaneous vertical and horizontal polarization
It narrows the main lobe in azimuth
It narrows the main lobe in elevation

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

To enable multiband operation
To notch spurious frequencies
To provide balanced feed point impedance
To prevent out-of-band operation

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

Broadside to the plane of the halo
Opposite the feed point
Omnidirectional in the plane of the halo
On the same side as the feed point

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

Very low
Approximately 50 ohms
Approximately 300 ohms
Very high

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

A horizontal dipole placed between 1/10 and 1/4 wavelength above the ground
A vertical antenna placed between 1/4 and 1/2 wavelength above the ground
A horizontal dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground
A vertical dipole placed at approximately 1/2 wavelength above the ground

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

It does not require the driven element to be insulated from the boom
It does not require any inductors or capacitors
It is useful for matching multiband antennas
All these choices are correct

What is a beta or hairpin match?

A shorted transmission line stub placed at the feed point of a Yagi antenna to provide impedance matching
A 1/4 wavelength section of 75-ohm coax in series with the feed point of a Yagi to provide impedance matching
A series capacitor selected to cancel the inductive reactance of a folded dipole antenna
A section of 300-ohm twin-lead transmission line used to match a folded dipole antenna

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

The physical length of the boom
The number of elements on the boom
The spacing of each element along the boom
All these choices are correct

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

Approximately 1.5 dB higher
Approximately 3 dB higher
Approximately 6 dB higher
Approximately 9 dB higher

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

The magnitude of the maximum vertical angle of radiation
The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element
The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element
The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

The number of directors versus the number of reflectors
The relative position of the driven element with respect to the reflectors and directors
The power radiated in the major lobe compared to that in the opposite direction
The ratio of forward gain to dipole gain

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

Gain increases
Beamwidth increases
Front-to-back ratio decreases
Resonant frequency is lower

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB lower
Gain in dBi is 2.15 dB higher
Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd lower
Gain in dBd is 1.25 dBd higher

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

The reflector is longer, and the director is shorter
The reflector is shorter, and the director is longer
They are all the same length
Relative length depends on the frequency of operation

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

1/4 wavelength
1/2 wavelength
3/4 wavelength
1 wavelength

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

Larger-diameter elements
Closer element spacing
Loading coils in series with the element
Tapered-diameter elements

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

8 feet
11 feet
16 feet
21 feet

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

42 feet
84 feet
132 feet
263 feet

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

8 feet
16 feet
24 feet
33 feet

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

Lower ground losses
Lower feed point impedance
Shorter radials
Lower radiation resistance

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

It steadily increases
It steadily decreases
It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength from the end
It is unaffected by the location of the feed point

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

It steadily increases
It steadily decreases
It peaks at about 1/8 wavelength above ground
It is unaffected by the height above ground

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

As high as possible above the ground
Parallel to the antenna element
On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground
At the center of the antenna

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable
Antenna height has no effect on the pattern
If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, the azimuthal pattern is almost omnidirectional
If the antenna is less than 1/2 wavelength high, radiation off the ends of the wire is eliminated

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna
It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna
It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions)
It has a pair of lobes on one side of the antenna and a single lobe on the other side

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

Bi-directional in azimuth
Isotropic
Hemispherical
Omnidirectional in azimuth

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

Slope the radials upward
Slope the radials downward
Lengthen the radials beyond one wavelength
Coil the radials

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

It must be longer than 1 wavelength
Station equipment may carry significant RF current
It produces only vertically polarized radiation
It is more effective on the lower HF bands than on the higher bands

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

Higher loss reduces SWR measured at the input to the line
Higher loss increases SWR measured at the input to the line
Higher loss increases the accuracy of SWR measured at the input to the line
Transmission line loss does not affect the SWR measurement

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

2:01
1:02
1:05
5:01

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

4:01
1:04
2:01
1:02

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

1:01
5:01
Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the characteristic impedance of the line
Between 1:1 and 5:1 depending on the reflected power at the transmitter

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential
The feed line must be an odd number of electrical quarter wavelengths long
The feed line must be an even number of physical half wavelengths long
The antenna feed point impedance must be matched to the characteristic impedance of the feed line

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

Ohms per 1,000 feet
Decibels per 1,000 feet
Ohms per 100 feet
Decibels per 100 feet

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

Attenuation is independent of frequency
Attenuation increases
Attenuation decreases
Attenuation follows Marconi's Law of Attenuation

What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency
Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle
A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed point impedance
Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed line

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

50 ohms
75 ohms
100 ohms
450 ohms

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

There is no relationship between transmission line loss and SWR
High SWR increases loss in a lossy transmission line
High SWR makes it difficult to measure transmission line loss
High SWR reduces the relative effect of transmission line loss

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the conductors
The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the line
The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal
The frequency of the signal and the length of the line

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

WSPR, MFSK16, and EasyPAL
FT8, FT4, and FST4
Winlink, PACTOR II, and PACTOR III
DMR, D-STAR, and SystemFusion

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

The signal is 3 times the noise level of an equivalent SSB signal
The signal is S3 (weak signals)
The signal-to-noise ratio is equivalent to +3dB in a 2.5 kHz bandwidth
The signal is 3 dB over S9

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is vertical, time is intensity
Frequency is vertical, signal strength is intensity, time is horizontal
Frequency is horizontal, signal strength is intensity, time is vertical
Frequency is vertical, signal strength is horizontal, time is intensity

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

Long path propagation
Backscatter propagation
Insufficient modulation
Overmodulation

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

Varicode
Viterbi
Volumetric
Binary

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

Dot and dash
On and off
High and low
Mark and space

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

By controlling transmitter output power for optimum signal strength
By using the Varicode character set
By transmitting redundant information with the data
By using a parity bit with each character

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

Having more nodes increases signal strengths
If one node fails, a packet may still reach its target station via an alternate node
Links between two nodes in a network may have different frequencies and bandwidths
More nodes reduce overall microwave out of band interference

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

Upper case letters are sent with more power
Upper case letters use longer Varicode bit sequences and thus slow down transmission
Error correction is used to ensure accurate message reception
Higher power is needed as compared to RTTY for similar error rates

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

MSK144
FT8
AMTOR
MFSK32

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

The checksum overflows
The connection is dropped
Packets will be routed incorrectly
Encoding reverts to the default character set

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

Request retransmission of the packet
Packet was received without error
Receiving station connected and ready for transmissions
Entire file received correctly

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

A 7-bit code with start, stop, and parity bits
A code using error detection and correction
A 5-bit code with additional start and stop bits
A code using SELCAL and LISTEN

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

Directory
Preamble
Header
Trailer

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

WSPR
MFSK16
PSK31
SSB-SC

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

432 MHz
902 MHz
2.4 GHz
10.7 GHz

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

5F1-3F2
3F1-F2
2F1-F2
All these choices are correct

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

Intermodulation
Heterodyning
Detection
Rolloff

What combination of a mixer's Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

The ratio
The average
The sum and difference
The arithmetic product

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

Symbol rate and bandwidth are not related
Higher symbol rates require wider bandwidth
Lower symbol rates require wider bandwidth
Bandwidth is half the symbol rate

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

It is required by FCC rules
It minimizes power consumption in the receiver
It improves impedance matching of the antenna
It results in the best signal-to-noise ratio

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

To aid in tuning your transmitter
Some modes have high duty cycles that could exceed the transmitter's average power rating
To allow time for the other station to break in during a transmission
To prevent overmodulation

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

101.75 Hz
416.7 Hz
5 kHz
60 kHz

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

3 kHz
5 kHz
8 kHz
16 kHz

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

Second harmonics
Even-order
Odd-order
Intercept point

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

Mixer
Reactance modulator
Balanced converter
Multiplier

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

Heterodyning
Synthesizing
Frequency inversion
Phase inversion

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

Quadrature response
Image response
Mixer interference
Intermediate interference

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

Image frequency
Local oscillator
RF input
Beat frequency oscillator

What is link margin?

The opposite of fade margin
The difference between received power level and minimum required signal level at the input to the receiver
Transmit power minus receiver sensitivity
Receiver sensitivity plus 3 dB

What is a link budget?

The financial costs associated with operating a radio link
The sum of antenna gains minus system losses
The sum of transmit power and antenna gains minus system losses as seen at the receiver
The difference between transmit power and receiver sensitivity

What is QPSK modulation?

Modulation using quasi-parallel to serial conversion to reduce bandwidth
Modulation using quadra-pole sideband keying to generate spread spectrum signals
Modulation using Fast Fourier Transforms to generate frequencies at the first, second, third, and fourth harmonics of the carrier frequency to improve noise immunity
Modulation in which digital data is transmitted using 0-, 90-, 180- and 270-degrees phase shift to represent pairs of bits

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

The waveform created by connecting the peak values of the modulated signal
The carrier frequency that contains the signal
Spurious signals that envelop nearby frequencies
The bandwidth of the modulated signal

What is meant by the term "flat-topping" when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current
The transmitter's automatic level control (ALC) is properly adjusted
Signal distortion caused by excessive drive or speech levels
The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

8-tone frequency shift keying
Vestigial sideband
Amplitude compressed AM
8-bit direct sequence spread spectrum

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

Insufficient audio
Insufficient bandwidth
Frequency drift
Excessive bandwidth

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

Single sideband
Vestigial sideband
Phase modulation
Frequency modulation

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

It is sideband sensitive
Its encoding provides error correction
Its bandwidth is approximately the same as BPSK31
All these choices are correct

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

Power modulation
Phase modulation
Frequency modulation
Amplitude modulation

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

Multiplex modulation
Phase modulation
Amplitude modulation
Pulse modulation

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

Frequency convolution
Frequency transformation
Frequency conversion
Frequency modulation

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

Phase convolution
Phase modulation
Phase transformation
Phase inversion

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

By keying an FM transmitter with a sub-audible tone
By changing an oscillator's frequency directly with a digital control signal
By using a transceiver's computer data interface protocol to change frequencies
By reconfiguring the CW keying input to act as a tone generator

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

Upper and lower half-power
Cutoff and rolloff
Pole and zero
Image and harmonic

What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

Notch depth
Rolloff
Insertion loss
Ultimate rejection

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

Notch frequency
Neper frequency
Cutoff frequency
Rolloff frequency

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

Filtering
Detection
Modulation
All these choices are correct

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

The need for high resolution analog-to-digital converters is eliminated
All types of modulation can be created with appropriate processing
Minimum detectible signal level is reduced
Automatic conversion of the signal from digital to analog

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

Zero
90 degrees
180 degrees
45 degrees

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

Input amplifier gain
Demodulator stage bandwidth
Input amplifier noise figure
All these choices are correct

What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

Insertion loss
Return loss
Q
Ultimate rejection

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
Fewer digital components are required
Mixing products are greatly reduced
The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

Extremely narrow tuning range
Relatively high-power output
Pure sine wave output
Variable output frequency with the stability of a crystal oscillator

How is a product detector used?

Used in test gear to detect spurious mixing products
Used in a transmitter to perform frequency multiplication
Used in an FM receiver to filter out unwanted sidebands
Used in a single sideband receiver to extract the modulated signal

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

To minimize transmitter power output
To present the desired impedance to the transmitter and feed line
To reduce power supply ripple
To minimize radiation resistance

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

Frequency modulated RF
Audio with equalized frequency response
Audio extracted from the modulation signal
Double-sideband modulated RF

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

Carrier oscillator
Filter
IF amplifier
RF amplifier

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

SSB
FM
AM
All these choices are correct

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

Any RF power amplifier used in conjunction with an amateur transceiver
An amplifier in which the output preserves the input waveform
A Class C high efficiency amplifier
An amplifier used as a frequency multiplier

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

The number of stages in the counter
The number of stages in the divider
The inductance and capacitance in the tank circuit
The time delay of the lag circuit

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

Divide the DC input power by the DC output power
Divide the RF output power by the DC input power
Multiply the RF input power by the reciprocal of the RF output power
Add the RF input power to the DC output power

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

An amplifier and a divider
A frequency multiplier and a mixer
A circulator and a filter operating in a feed-forward loop
A filter and an amplifier operating in a feedback loop

What is a shift register?

A clocked array of circuits that passes data in steps along the array
An array of operational amplifiers used for tri-state arithmetic operations
A digital mixer
An analog mixer

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

3
6
8
16

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

100%
More than 50% but less than 100%
50%
Less than 50%

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

Output is high when either or both inputs are low
Output is high only when both inputs are high
Output is low when either or both inputs are high
Output is low only when both inputs are high

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

Class A
Class B
Class AB
Class C

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

To limit the modulation index
To eliminate self-oscillations
To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods
To keep the carrier on frequency

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

Symbol 7
Symbol 11
Symbol 6
Symbol 1

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

Symbol 4
Symbol 7
Symbol 6
Symbol 1

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

Symbol 1
Symbol 2
Symbol 7
Symbol 11

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

Symbol 4
Symbol 1
Symbol 11
Symbol 5

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

Symbol 2
Symbol 5
Symbol 1
Symbol 4

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

Faster switching time makes higher output voltage possible
Fewer circuit components are required
High-frequency operation allows the use of smaller components
Inherently more stable

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

A series of DC pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input
A series of DC pulses at the same frequency as the AC input
A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input
A steady DC voltage

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

90 degrees
180 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

Only one diode is required
The ripple frequency is twice that of a full-wave rectifier
More current can be drawn from the half-wave rectifier
The output voltage is two times the peak input voltage

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

Full-wave
Full-wave bridge
Half-wave
Synchronous

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

Diodes
Transformers and transducers
Capacitors and inductors
All these choices are correct

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

It acts as a fuse for excess voltage
It discharges the filter capacitors when power is removed
It removes shock hazards from the induction coils
It eliminates ground loop current

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

PL-259
BNC
RCA Phono
Type N

What is an SMA connector?

A type-S to type-M adaptor
A small threaded connector suitable for signals up to several GHz
A connector designed for serial multiple access signals
A type of push-on connector intended for high-voltage applications

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

By creating an impedance in the current's path
It converts common-mode current to differential mode current
By creating an out-of-phase current to cancel the common-mode current
Ferrites expel magnetic fields

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

In the tunnel-effect region
At the Zener voltage
Reverse biased
Forward biased

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

A moisture-resistant RF connector useful to 10 GHz
A small bayonet connector used for data circuits
A low noise figure VHF connector
A nickel plated version of the PL-259

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

Digital
MMIC
Programmable Logic
Analog

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

Large values of inductance may be obtained
The magnetic properties of the core may be optimized for a specific range of frequencies
Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core
All these choices are correct

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

50 MHz
500 MHz
4 GHz
40 GHz

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

Low power consumption
High power handling capability
Better suited for RF amplification
Better suited for power supply regulation

What is meant by the term MMIC?

Multi-Mode Integrated Circuit
Monolithic Microwave Integrated Circuit
Metal Monolayer Integrated Circuit
Mode Modulated Integrated Circuit

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

Its conductivity
Its thickness
The composition, or “mix,” of materials used
The ratio of outer diameter to inner diameter

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

To reduce grid-to-plate capacitance
To increase efficiency
To increase the control grid resistance
To decrease plate resistance

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

Its reactance increases
Harmonics are generated
It becomes capacitive
Catastrophic failure is likely

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

Control grid
Suppressor grid
Screen grid
Trigger electrode

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

The gate is formed by a back-biased junction
The gate is separated from the channel by a thin insulating layer
The source is separated from the drain by a thin insulating layer
The source is formed by depositing metal on silicon

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

Tight tolerance
High stability
High capacitance for given volume
Comparatively low cost

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

Saturation and cutoff
The active region (between cutoff and saturation)
Peak and valley current points
Enhancement and depletion modes

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate
The resistor's inductance could make circuit performance unpredictable
The resistor could overheat
The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

0.1 volt
0.3 volts
0.7 volts
1.0 volts

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

Tight tolerance
Much less leakage than any other type
High capacitance for a given volume
Inexpensive RF capacitor

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

0.1 volt
0.3 volts
0.7 volts
1.0 volts

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

Long life
High discharge current
High voltage
Rapid recharge

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

6 volts
8.5 volts
10.5 volts
12 volts

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

A capacitor in series
A capacitor in parallel
An inductor in parallel
An inductor in series

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

An inductor in series
An inductor in parallel
A capacitor in parallel
A capacitor in series

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

0.07 microfarads
14.3 microfarads
70 microfarads
1,000 microfarads

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

7 millihenries
14.3 millihenries
70 millihenries
1,000 millihenries

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

0.30 henries
3.3 henries
3.3 millihenries
30 millihenries

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

0.33 microfarads
3.0 microfarads
33.3 microfarads
300 microfarads

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

576.9 nanofarads
1,733 picofarads
3,583 picofarads
10.750 nanofarads

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

3.5 to 1
12 to 1
24 to 1
144 to 1

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

360 volts
120 volts
40 volts
25.5 volts

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

To improve the coupling between the primary and secondary
To accommodate the higher current of the primary
To prevent parasitic oscillations due to resistive losses in the primary
To ensure that the volume of the primary winding is equal to the volume of the secondary winding

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

300 ohms
150 ohms
75 ohms
67 ohms

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

5.9 ohms
0.17 ohms
17 ohms
80 ohms

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

The input voltage is multiplied by 4
The input voltage is divided by 4
Additional resistance must be added in series with the primary to prevent overload
Additional resistance must be added in parallel with the secondary to prevent overload

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

Capacitive coupling
Displacement current coupling
Mutual inductance
Mutual capacitance

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

8.75 watts
625 watts
2500 watts
5000 watts

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

530 watts
1060 watts
1500 watts
2120 watts

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

173 volts
245 volts
346 volts
692 volts

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

0.707
1
1.414
2

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

10.9 percent
12.2 percent
20.6 percent
25.9 percent

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

8.5 volts
12 volts
24 volts
34 volts

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

84.8 volts
169.7 volts
240.0 volts
339.4 volts

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

The peak-to-peak value
The peak value
The RMS value
The reciprocal of the RMS value

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

1.4 watts
100 watts
353.5 watts
400 watts

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

Approximately 61 milliwatts
Approximately 61 watts
Approximately 11 milliwatts
Approximately 11 watts

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

2.4 watts
24 watts
6 watts
60 watts

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

0.5 watts
200 watts
400 watts
3200 watts

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

It equals the average of the branch currents
It decreases as more parallel branches are added to the circuit
It equals the sum of the currents through each branch
It is the sum of the reciprocal of each individual voltage drop

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

Approximately 2 dB
Approximately 3 dB
Approximately 6 dB
Approximately 9 dB

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

Current and voltage are equal
Resistance is cancelled
The circuit radiates all its energy in the form of radio waves
Inductive reactance and capacitive reactance cancel

What letter is used to represent reactance?

Z
X
B
Y

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

A transformer
A Pi-network
A length of transmission line
All these choices are correct

What unit is used to measure reactance?

Farad
Ohm
Ampere
Siemens

What is impedance?

The ratio of current to voltage
The product of current and voltage
The ratio of voltage to current
The product of current and reactance

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

Conductance
Susceptance
Reluctance
Admittance

How does a capacitor react to AC?

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases

How does an inductor react to AC?

As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases
As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases
As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

Conductance
Reluctance
Reactance
Admittance

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

Conductance
Reluctance
Admittance
Reactance

What is reactance?

Opposition to the flow of direct current caused by resistance
Opposition to the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance
Reinforcement of the flow of direct current caused by resistance
Reinforcement of the flow of alternating current caused by capacitance or inductance

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

Resonance causes impedance to be very high
Impedance is equal to the geometric mean of the inductance and capacitance
Resonance causes impedance to be very low
Impedance is equal to the arithmetic mean of the inductance and capacitance

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

Ground the solar panel outer metal framework
Ensure the battery is placed terminals-up
A series resistor must be in place
The solar panel must have a charge controller

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

To prevent overload by regulating the charging voltage
To prevent discharge of the battery through the panel during times of low or no illumination
To limit the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
To prevent damage to the battery due to excessive voltage at high illumination levels

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

0.02 VDC
0.5 VDC
0.2 VDC
1.38 VDC

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

Series-parallel
Shunt
Bypass
Full-wave bridge

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

The battery charging system
The fuel delivery system
The control computers
All these choices are correct

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
Q of the antenna will be very low
Operating bandwidth may be very limited
Harmonic radiation may increase

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

“Picket fencing”
The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
The socket's wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
To the battery using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line
To the alternator or generator using insulated heavy duty balanced transmission line

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
To increase the “Q” of the antenna
To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
To reduce radiation resistance
To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
To lower the radiation angle

How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

How close to the lower edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

14.347 MHz to 14.647 MHz
14.347 MHz to 14.350 MHz
14.344 MHz to 14.347 MHz
14.3455 MHz to 14.3485 MHz

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

7.178 MHz to 7.181 MHz
7.178 MHz to 7.184 MHz
7.175 MHz to 7.178 MHz
7.1765 MHz to 7.1795 MHz

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

Approximately 1.5 times
Approximately 2 times
Approximately 4 times
Approximately 8 times

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

6 dB
12 dB
15 dB
18 dB

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

It is 10 times less powerful
It is 20 times less powerful
It is 20 times more powerful
It is 100 times more powerful

What does an S meter measure?

Carrier suppression
Impedance
Received signal strength
Transmitter power output

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

Distorted speech
Excess intermodulation products
Excessive background noise
All these choices are correct

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

It increases peak power
It increases average power
It reduces harmonic distortion
It reduces intermodulation distortion

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

Increase the apparent loudness of transmitted voice signals
Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
Prevent distortion of voice signals
Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
It prevents signal overload
It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
Using surge suppressor power outlets
Bonding all equipment enclosures together
Placing low-pass filters on all feed lines

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station's audio connections?

You receive reports of “hum” on your station's transmitted signal
The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

Connect all ground conductors in series
Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
Bond equipment enclosures together

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

Place a ferrite choke on the cable
Connect the center conductor to the shield of all cables to short circuit the RFI signal
Ground the center conductor of the audio cable causing the interference
Add an additional insulating jacket to the cable

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike
Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
All these choices are correct

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

Overheating of ground straps
Corrosion of the ground rod
High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
A ground loop

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
The ground rod is resonant
The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

On-and-off humming or clicking
A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
A chirpy CW signal
Severely distorted audio

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
On-and-off humming or clicking
Distorted speech
Clearly audible speech

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors
Arcing at a poor electrical connection
Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

Bypass inductor
Bypass capacitor
Forward-biased diode
Reverse-biased diode

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

Front-to-back ratio of an antenna
Power output from a transmitter
Impedance of coaxial cable
Gain of a directional antenna

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

Desensitization which can cause intermodulation products which interfere with impedance readings
Received power that interferes with SWR readings
Generation of harmonics which interfere with frequency readings
All these choices are correct

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

Receiver
Transmitter
Antenna and feed line
All these choices are correct

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

Standing wave ratio
Antenna front-to-back ratio
RF interference
Radio wave propagation

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

When testing logic circuits
When high precision is desired
When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
When adjusting circuits for maximum or minimum values

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

Linearity
Percentage of suppression of the carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
Percentage of frequency modulation
Percentage of carrier phase shift

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
Two non-harmonically related audio signals
Two swept frequency tones
Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

Better for measuring computer circuits
Less prone to overload
Higher precision
Faster response

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

It improves the frequency response
It allows for higher voltages to be safely measured
It improves the resolution of the readings
It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

The local oscillator of the transmitter
An external RF oscillator
The transmitter balanced mixer output
The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

An oscilloscope
A field strength meter
A sidetone monitor
A wavemeter

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

An oscilloscope uses less power
Complex impedances can be easily measured
Greater precision
Complex waveforms can be measured

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

An ohmmeter
A signal generator
An ammeter
An oscilloscope

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

To prevent receiver overload from strong incoming signals
To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
To reduce excessive audio level on strong signals

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
To permit full duplex operation -- that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
To transmit on one frequency and listen on another
To improve frequency accuracy by allowing variable frequency output (VFO) operation

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
The ALC action distorts the signal
When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
All these choices are correct

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

Automatic transmit/receive switching
Automatic generation of dots and dashes for CW operation
To allow time for switching the antenna from the receiver to the transmitter
Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

To prevent key clicks on CW
To prevent transient overmodulation
To allow time for the amplifier to switch the antenna between the transceiver and the amplifier output
To allow time for the amplifier power supply to reach operating level

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

Minimum SWR on the antenna
Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
Desired power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

Received signals may become distorted
Received frequency may become unstable
CW signals may become severely attenuated
Received frequency may shift several kHz

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

Reduce the SWR in the feed line to the antenna
Reduce the power dissipation in the feedline to the antenna
Increase power transfer from the transmitter to the feed line
All these choices are correct

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
To reduce harmonic radiation
To prevent excessive drive
To increase overall efficiency

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

A pronounced peak
A pronounced dip
No change will be observed
A slow, rhythmic oscillation

How does a noise blanker work?

By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
By clipping noise peaks

What is the benefit of using the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW?

Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
To remove interfering splatter generated by signals on adjacent frequencies

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

The F2 region
The F1 region
The E region
The D region

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

Propagation near the MUF
Short distance MF or HF propagation at high elevation angles
Long path HF propagation at sunrise and sunset
Double hop propagation near the LUF

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

Faraday rotation
Scatter
Chordal hop
Short-path

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

Only a small part of the signal energy is scattered into the skip zone
Signals are scattered from the magnetosphere, which is not a good reflector
Propagation is via ground waves, which absorb most of the signal energy
Propagation is via ducts in the F region, which absorb most of the energy

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

The ionospheric region involved is unstable
Ground waves are absorbing much of the signal
The E region is not present
Energy is scattered into the skip zone through several different paths

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

Phone signals have high intelligibility
Signals have a fluttering sound
There are very large, sudden swings in signal strength
Scatter propagation occurs only at night

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

The F region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
The F region is unstable during daylight hours
The D region absorbs signals at these frequencies during daylight hours
The E region is unstable during daylight hours

What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

The long path azimuth of a distant station
The short path azimuth of a distant station
The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions
The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to Earth under specific ionospheric conditions

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

Because it is the densest
Because of the Doppler effect
Because it is the highest
Because of temperature inversions

What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

The highest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
The lowest frequency which is refracted back to Earth
The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio approaches unity
The frequency at which the signal-to-noise ratio is 6 dB

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

The D region
The E region
The F1 region
The F2 region

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

Poor propagation at any time of day
World-wide propagation during daylight hours
Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
High levels of atmospheric noise or static

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

Propagation via ordinary skywave communications is not possible over that path
HF communications over the path are enhanced
Double-hop propagation along the path is more common
Propagation over the path on all HF frequencies is enhanced

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

180 miles
1,200 miles
2,500 miles
12,000 miles

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

180 miles
1,200 miles
2,500 miles
12,000 miles

What does MUF stand for?

The Minimum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
The Maximum Usable Frequency for communications between two points
The Minimum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
The Maximum Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period

What does LUF stand for?

The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications between two specific points
The Lowest Usable Frequency for communications to any point outside a 100-mile radius
The Lowest Usable Frequency during a 24-hour period
The Lowest Usable Frequency during the past 60 minutes

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

They are refracted back to Earth
They pass through the ionosphere
They are attenuated before reaching the destination
They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

They are refracted back to Earth
They pass through the ionosphere
They are amplified by interaction with the ionosphere
They are refracted and trapped in the ionosphere to circle Earth

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

Use a network of automated receiving stations on the internet to see where your transmissions are being received
Check the A-index
Send a series of dots and listen for echoes
All these choices are correct

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

Just below the MUF
Just above the LUF
Just below the critical frequency
Just above the critical frequency

What factors affect the MUF?

Path distance and location
Time of day and season
Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances
All these choices are correct

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

Periodic fading approximately every 10 seconds
Signal strength increased by 3 dB
The signal might be cancelled causing severe attenuation
A slightly delayed echo might be heard

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

HF communication is improved
HF communication is disturbed
VHF/UHF ducting is improved
VHF/UHF ducting is disturbed

What does the A-index measure?

The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
The amount of polarization of the Sun's electric field
The long-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

What does the K-index measure?

The relative position of sunspots on the surface of the Sun
The short-term stability of Earth's geomagnetic field
The short-term stability of the Sun's magnetic field
The solar radio flux at Boulder, Colorado

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

28 days
14 days
4 to 8 minutes
15 hours to several days

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

Long term oscillations in the upper atmosphere
Cyclic variation in Earth's radiation belts
Rotation of the Sun's surface layers around its axis
The position of the Moon in its orbit

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

Creates auroras that can reflect VHF signals
Increases signal strength for HF signals passing through the polar regions
Improve HF long path propagation
Reduce long delayed echoes

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

Improve high-latitude HF propagation
Degrade ground wave propagation
Improve ground wave propagation
Degrade high-latitude HF propagation

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

At the summer solstice
Only at the maximum point
Only at the minimum point
At any point

What is a geomagnetic storm?

A sudden drop in the solar flux index
A thunderstorm that affects radio propagation
Ripples in the geomagnetic force
A temporary disturbance in Earth's geomagnetic field

What is the solar flux index?

A measure of the highest frequency that is useful for ionospheric propagation between two points on Earth
A count of sunspots that is adjusted for solar emissions
Another name for the American sunspot number
A measure of solar radiation with a wavelength of 10.7 centimeters

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

80 meters and 160 meters
60 meters and 40 meters
30 meters and 20 meters
15 meters, 12 meters, and 10 meters

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

28 days
1 to 2 hours
8 minutes
20 to 40 hours

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

It enhances propagation on all HF frequencies
It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher frequencies
It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications
None, because only areas on the night side of the Earth are affected

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

Higher sunspot numbers generally indicate a greater probability of good propagation at higher frequencies
Lower sunspot numbers generally indicate greater probability of sporadic E propagation
A zero sunspot number indicates that radio propagation is not possible on any band
A zero sunspot number indicates undisturbed conditions

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

Anywhere in the voice portion of the band
Anywhere in the CW portion of the band
Approximately 14.074 MHz to 14.077 MHz
Approximately 14.110 MHz to 14.113 MHz

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
You may have selected the wrong baud rate
You may be listening on the wrong sideband
All these choices are correct

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

Terminal Node Controller
Gateway
RJ-45
Printer/Server

Which of the following describes Winlink?

An amateur radio wireless network to send and receive email on the internet
A form of Packet Radio
A wireless network capable of both VHF and HF band operation
All these choices are correct

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

To provide FM repeater coverage in remote areas
To provide real time propagation data by monitoring amateur radio transmissions worldwide
To provide high-speed data services during an emergency or community event
To provide DX spotting reports to aid contesters and DXers

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

Send an email to the system control operator
Send QRL in Morse code
Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
Transmit a connect message on the station's published frequency

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
Send a NAK code

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
Between 14.070 MHz and 14.100 MHz

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

A special hardware modem
Computer time accurate to within approximately 1 second
Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
A vertically polarized antenna

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

85 Hz
170 Hz
425 Hz
850 Hz

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

LSB
USB
DSB
SSB

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

Always call on the station's frequency
Call on any frequency in the waterfall except the station's frequency
Find a clear frequency during the same time slot as the calling station
Find a clear frequency during the alternate time slot to the calling station

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

Frequent retries or timeouts
Long pauses in message transmission
Failure to establish a connection between stations
All these choices are correct

What is VARA?

A low signal-to-noise digital mode used for EME (moonbounce)
A digital protocol used with Winlink
A radio direction finding system used on VHF and UHF
DX spotting system using a network of software defined radios

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

USB
DSB
CW
LSB

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

To allow each station to operate according to conditions
To be sure the contact will count for award programs
To follow standard radiogram structure
To allow each station to calibrate their frequency display

What is QRP operation?

Remote piloted model control
Low-power transmit operation
Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
Traffic relay procedure net operation

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

Submit a log to the contest sponsor
Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
Identify your station according to normal FCC regulations
All these choices are correct

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

The FCC requires a log of all international contacts
The FCC requires a log of all international third-party traffic
The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
To help with a reply if the FCC requests information about your station

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
Adam, Boy, Charles, David
America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

Toward the rising sun
Along the gray line
180 degrees from the station's short-path heading
Toward the north

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign -- if no answer, change frequency and repeat
Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen -- repeat as necessary

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A map that shows accurate land masses
A map that shows true bearings and distances from a specific location
A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

Compare vertical and horizontal signal strengths on the input frequency
Compare beam headings on the repeater input from their home locations with that of other Volunteer Monitors
Compare signal strengths between the input and output of the repeater
All these choices are correct

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
To provide emergency and public safety communications
To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

You are sending too fast
There is interference on the frequency
I am quitting for the day
I am ready to receive

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

Send more slowly
Stop sending
Zero beat my signal
I am troubled by static

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

Send slower
We have already confirmed the contact
I have received and understood
We have worked before

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

SK
BK
AR
KN

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

Chirpy or unstable signal
Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
100 percent copy
Key clicks

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

Matching the speed of the transmitting station
Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
Sending without error
Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

What does the Q signal "QRL" mean?

“Will you keep the frequency clear?”
“Are you operating full break-in?” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
“Are you listening only for a specific station?”
“Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

No US stations should call
Operating full break-in
Listening only for a specific station or stations
Closing station now

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

Send slower
Change frequency
Increase your power
Repeat everything twice

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

No more than 1 hour per month
No more than 2 hours per month
No more than 1 hour per week
No more than 2 hours per week

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

Always use multiple sets of phonetics during check-in
Have a backup frequency in case of interference or poor conditions
Transmit the full net roster at the beginning of every session
All these choices are correct

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
Only a RACES net control operator
A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
Only digital contacts
Only SSTV contacts

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

Listen on the frequency for at least two minutes to be sure it is clear
Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
Follow the voluntary band plan
All these choices are correct

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

5 Hz to 50 Hz
150 Hz to 500 Hz
2 kHz to 3 kHz
Approximately 6 kHz

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

5 Hz to 50 Hz
150 Hz to 500 Hz
1 kHz to 3 kHz
3 kHz to 6 kHz

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

Advise the interfering stations that you are on the frequency and that you have priority
Decrease power and continue to transmit
Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
Switch to the opposite sideband

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

Inform your local emergency coordinator
Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
Immediately decrease power to avoid interfering with the station in distress
Immediately cease all transmissions

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

Nets have priority
QSOs in progress have priority
Except during emergencies, no amateur station has priority access to any frequency
Contest operations should yield to non-contest use of frequencies

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

RF clipping level
Transmit audio or microphone gain
Antenna inductance or capacitance
Attenuator level

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?

Any caller is welcome to respond
Only stations in Germany
Any stations outside the lower 48 states
Only contest stations

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

The received signal is more natural sounding
It allows “hands free” operation
It occupies less bandwidth
It provides more power output

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
It is commonly accepted amateur practice

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
Say your call sign once
Say “Breaker Breaker”
Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 20-, 15-, and 10-meter amateur bands
SSB is the only voice mode authorized on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter amateur bands

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

Very high-fidelity voice modulation
Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

Frequency modulation
Double sideband
Single sideband
Single phase modulation

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Suppressed sideband
Double sideband

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Suppressed sideband
Double sideband

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Suppressed sideband
Double sideband

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

Upper sideband
Lower sideband
Suppressed sideband
Double sideband

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

Under any circumstances in which third party messages are permitted by FCC rules
Under no circumstances except for emergencies
Only when the message is intended for licensed radio amateurs
Only when the message is intended for third parties in areas where licensing is controlled by the FCC

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

On any band segment where digital operation is permitted
Anywhere in the non-phone segments of the 10-meter or shorter wavelength bands
Only in the non-phone Extra Class segments of the bands
Anywhere in the 6-meter or shorter wavelength bands, and in limited segments of some of the HF bands

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

A system of propagation beacon stations operates on those frequencies
A system of automatic digital stations operates on those frequencies 
These frequencies are set aside for emergency operations
These frequencies are set aside for bulletins from the FCC

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

Under no circumstances
When messages are encrypted
When messages are not encrypted
When under automatic control

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

100 milliwatts
10 watts
100 watts
1500 watts

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

Anywhere in the band
Channels 1 through 4
Channels 42 through 45
No part

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

Region 4
Region 3
Region 2
Region 1

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

They must relate to emergencies or disaster relief
They must be for other licensed amateurs
They must relate to amateur radio, or remarks of a personal character, or messages relating to emergencies or disaster relief
The message must be limited to no longer than 1 minute in duration and the name of the third party must be recorded in the station log

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

When operating within one mile of an FCC Monitoring Station
When using a band where the Amateur Service is secondary
When a station is transmitting spread spectrum emissions
All these choices are correct

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

The station initiating the contact must be under local or remote control
The interrogating transmission must be made by another automatically controlled station
No third-party traffic may be transmitted
The control operator of the interrogating station must hold an Amateur Extra class license

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

Under no circumstances
Only if the station on 10-meters is operating under a Special Temporary Authorization allowing such retransmission
Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency
Only if the 10-meter repeater control operator holds at least a General class license

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

The third party's amateur license has been revoked and not reinstated
The third party is not a US citizen
The third party is speaking in a language other than English
All these choices are correct

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

Those of both the remote station's country and the FCC
Those of the remote station's country and the FCC's third-party regulations
Only those of the remote station's country
Only those of the FCC

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

They must have a letter from the FCC showing they once held an amateur or commercial license
There are no requirements other than being able to show a copy of the expired license
Contact the FCC to have the license reinstated
The applicant must show proof of the appropriate expired license grant and pass the current Element 2 exam

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

16 years
18 years
21 years
There is no age limit

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

30 days
180 days
365 days
For as long as your current license is valid

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

The person must be a resident of the US for a minimum of 5 years
The person must hold an FCC granted amateur radio license of General class or above
The person's home citizenship must be in ITU region 2
None of these choices is correct; a non-US citizen cannot be a Volunteer Examiner

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

The Federal Communications Commission
The Universal Licensing System
A Volunteer Examiner Coordinator
The Wireless Telecommunications Bureau

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with "AG" after their call sign?

Whenever they operate using General class frequency privileges
Whenever they operate on any amateur frequency
Whenever they operate using Technician frequency privileges
A special identifier is not required if their General class license application has been filed with the FCC

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

A US operator/primary station license
Only an appropriate US operator/primary license and a special remote station permit from the FCC
Only a license from the foreign country, as long as the call sign includes identification of portable operation in the US
A license from the foreign country and a special remote station permit from the FCC

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

At least three Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
At least two Volunteer Examiners of General class or higher
At least two Volunteer Examiners of Technician class or higher
At least three Volunteer Examiners of Technician class

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

Only the Technician band segments until your upgrade is posted in the FCC database
Only on the Technician band segments until you have a receipt for the FCC application fee payment
On any General or Technician class band segment
On any General or Technician class band segment except 30 meters and 60 meters

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

General and Technician
None, only Amateur Extra class licensees may be accredited
Technician only
Amateur Extra, General, and Technician

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

Any person who can demonstrate that they once held an FCC-issued General, Advanced, or Amateur Extra class license that was not revoked by the FCC
Anyone who held an FCC-issued amateur radio license that expired not less than 5 and not more than 15 years ago
Any person who previously held an amateur license issued by another country, but only if that country has a current reciprocal licensing agreement with the FCC
Only persons who once held an FCC issued Novice, Technician, or Technician Plus license

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

RMS output from the transmitter
RMS input to the antenna
PEP input to the antenna
PEP output from the transmitter

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

1500 watts PEP
10 watts RMS
ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to a dipole
ERP of 100 watts PEP with respect to an isotropic antenna

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

Type-certify equipment to FCC standards
Obtain an experimental license from the FCC
Publicly document the technical characteristics of the protocol
Submit a rule-making proposal to the FCC describing the codes and methods of the technique

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1200 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

100 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

If you are using an antenna other than a dipole, you must keep a record of the gain of your antenna
You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level, and stations worked
You must keep a record of all third-party traffic
You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the antenna used

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

2.8 kHz
5.6 kHz
1.8 kHz
3 kHz

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

50 watts PEP output
200 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
An effective radiated power equivalent to 100 watts from a half-wave dipole

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

200 watts PEP output
1000 watts PEP output
1500 watts PEP output
2000 watts PEP output

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

The FCC
The control operator
The IEEE
The ITU

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

10 watts PEP output
20 watts PEP output
100 watts PEP output
200 watts PEP output

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

On any frequency if power is less than 1 watt
On any frequency if transmissions are in Morse code
21.08 MHz to 21.09 MHz
28.20 MHz to 28.30 MHz

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

Only when the foreign country has a formal third-party agreement filed with the FCC
When the contact is with amateurs in any country except those whose administrations have notified the ITU that they object to such communications
Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the United Nations, or by a territory possessed by such a country
Only when the contact is with amateurs licensed by a country which is a member of the International Amateur Radio Union, or by a territory possessed by such a country

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

Only “Q” signals are permitted
They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message
They are not permitted
They are limited to those expressly listed in Part 97 of the FCC rules

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

Under no circumstances, FCC rules take priority
At any time and to any extent necessary to accomplish a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity, provided that proper filings are made with the FCC
Only when such structures exceed 50 feet in height and are clearly visible 1,000 feet from the structure
Amateur Service communications must be reasonably accommodated, and regulations must constitute the minimum practical to accommodate a legitimate purpose of the state or local entity

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

Unidentified test transmissions of less than 10 seconds in duration
Transmissions to assist with learning the International Morse code
Regular transmissions offering equipment for sale, if intended for amateur radio use
All these choices are correct

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

Unidentified transmissions of less than 10 seconds duration for test purposes only
Automatic retransmission of other amateur signals by any amateur station
Occasional retransmission of weather and propagation forecast information from US government stations
Encrypted messages, if not intended to facilitate a criminal act

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

Observation of propagation and reception
Automatic identification of repeaters
Transmission of bulletins of general interest to amateur radio licensees
All these choices are correct

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

No more than one beacon station may transmit in the same band from the same station location
The frequency must be coordinated with the National Beacon Organization
The frequency must be posted on the internet or published in a national periodical
All these choices are correct

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

50 feet
100 feet
200 feet
250 feet

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

The lower frequency portion
The upper frequency portion
The lower frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the upper portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz
The upper frequency portion on frequencies below 7.3 MHz, and the lower portion on frequencies above 14.150 MHz

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

The entire band
The portion between 28.1 MHz and 28.2 MHz
The portion between 28.3 MHz and 28.5 MHz
The portion above 29.5 MHz

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

14250 kHz
18155 kHz
21300 kHz
24900 kHz

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

All HF bands
80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
All HF bands except 160 meters and 10 meters
60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz only
28.000 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
28.025 MHz to 28.300 MHz only
The entire band

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

Amateur stations must record the call sign of the primary service station before operating on a frequency assigned to that station
Amateur stations may use the band only during emergencies
Amateur stations must not cause harmful interference to primary users and must accept interference from primary users
Amateur stations may only operate during specific hours of the day, while primary users are permitted 24-hour use of the band

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

7.125 MHz to 7.175 MHz
28.000 MHz to 28.025 MHz
21.275 MHz to 21.300 MHz
All these choices are correct

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

11 meters
12 meters
30 meters
60 meters

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

160 meters
30 meters
20 meters
12 meters

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

160 meters
30 meters
17 meters
12 meters

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

60 meters, 30 meters, 17 meters, and 12 meters
160 meters, 60 meters, 15 meters, and 12 meters
80 meters, 40 meters, 20 meters, and 15 meters
80 meters, 20 meters, 15 meters, and 10 meters