General Flash Cards

On which HF and/or MF amateur bands are there portions where General class licensees cannot transmit?

1/427

On which of the following bands is phone operation prohibited?

2/427

On which of the following bands is image transmission prohibited?

3/427

Which of the following amateur bands is restricted to communication only on specific channels, rather than frequency ranges?

4/427

On which of the following frequencies are General class licensees prohibited from operating as control operator?

5/427

Which of the following applies when the FCC rules designate the amateur service as a secondary user on a band?

6/427

On which amateur frequencies in the 10-meter band may stations with a General class control operator transmit CW emissions?

7/427

Which HF bands have segments exclusively allocated to Amateur Extra licensees?

8/427

Which of the following frequencies is within the General class portion of the 15-meter band?

9/427

What portion of the 10-meter band is available for repeater use?

10/427

When General class licensees are not permitted to use the entire voice portion of a band, which portion of the voice segment is available to them?

11/427

What is the maximum height above ground for an antenna structure not near a public use airport without requiring notification to the FAA and registration with the FCC?

12/427

With which of the following conditions must beacon stations comply?

13/427

Which of the following is a purpose of a beacon station as identified in the FCC rules?

14/427

Which of the following transmissions is permitted for all amateur stations?

15/427

Which of the following one-way transmissions are permitted?

16/427

Under what conditions are state and local governments permitted to regulate amateur radio antenna structures?

17/427

What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in the amateur service?

18/427

When is it permissible to communicate with amateur stations in countries outside the areas administered by the Federal Communications Commission?

19/427

On what HF frequencies are automatically controlled beacons permitted?

20/427

What is the power limit for beacon stations?

21/427

Who or what determines "good engineering and good amateur practice" as applied to the operation of an amateur station in all respects not covered by the Part 97 rules?

22/427

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on 10.140 MHz?

23/427

What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station may use on the 12-meter band?

24/427

What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio stations transmitting on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band?

25/427

Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 60-meter band?

26/427

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 28 MHz band for a General Class control operator?

27/427

What is the limit for transmitter power on the 1.8 MHz band?

28/427

What must be done before using a new digital protocol on the air?

29/427

What is the maximum power limit on the 60-meter band?

30/427

What measurement is specified by FCC rules that regulate maximum power?

31/427

Who may receive partial credit for the elements represented by an expired amateur radio license?

32/427

What license examinations may you administer as an accredited Volunteer Examiner holding a General class operator license?

33/427

On which of the following band segments may you operate if you are a Technician class operator and have an unexpired Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) for General class privileges?

34/427

Who must observe the administration of a Technician class license examination?

35/427

When operating a US station by remote control from outside the country, what license is required of the control operator?

36/427

Until an upgrade to General class is shown in the FCC database, when must a Technician licensee identify with "AG" after their call sign?

37/427

Volunteer Examiners are accredited by what organization?

38/427

Which of the following criteria must be met for a non-US citizen to be an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

39/427

How long is a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE) valid for exam element credit?

40/427

What is the minimum age that one must be to qualify as an accredited Volunteer Examiner?

41/427

What action is required to obtain a new General class license after a previously held license has expired and the two-year grace period has passed?

42/427

When operating a station in South America by remote control over the internet from the US, what regulations apply?

43/427

Which of the following would disqualify a third party from participating in sending a message via an amateur station?

44/427

When may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal from a station that has a Technician class control operator?

45/427

What is required to conduct communications with a digital station operating under automatic control outside the automatic control band segments?

46/427

Which of the following conditions require a licensed amateur radio operator to take specific steps to avoid harmful interference to other users or facilities?

47/427

What are the restrictions on messages sent to a third party in a country with which there is a Third-Party Agreement?

48/427

The frequency allocations of which ITU region apply to radio amateurs operating in North and South America?

49/427

In what part of the 2.4 GHz band may an amateur station communicate with non-licensed Wi-Fi stations?

50/427

What is the maximum PEP output allowed for spread spectrum transmissions?

51/427

Under what circumstances are messages that are sent via digital modes exempt from Part 97 third-party rules that apply to other modes of communication?

52/427

Why should an amateur operator normally avoid transmitting on 14.100, 18.110, 21.150, 24.930 and 28.200 MHz?

53/427

On what bands may automatically controlled stations transmitting RTTY or data emissions communicate with other automatically controlled digital stations?

54/427

When may third-party messages be transmitted via remote control?

55/427

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

56/427

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

57/427

Which mode is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

58/427

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17- and 12-meter bands?

59/427

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

60/427

Which of the following is an advantage of using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

61/427

Which of the following statements is true of single sideband (SSB)?

62/427

What is the recommended way to break into a phone contact?

63/427

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75-, and 40-meter bands?

64/427

Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation versus PTT operation?

65/427

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states calling "CQ DX"?

66/427

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on a single sideband transceiver?

67/427

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies?

68/427

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

69/427

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact creating interference from other stations using the frequency?

70/427

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation from other stations should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

71/427

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

72/427

How can you avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

73/427

Which of the following complies with commonly accepted amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

74/427

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for US stations transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 MHz to 50.125 MHz band segment?

75/427

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

76/427

Which of the following is good amateur practice for net management?

77/427

How often may RACES training drills and tests be routinely conducted without special authorization?

78/427

Which of the following describes full break-in CW operation (QSK)?

79/427

What should you do if a CW station sends "QRS"?

80/427

What does it mean when a CW operator sends "KN" at the end of a transmission?

81/427

What does the Q signal "QRL" mean?

82/427

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

83/427

What does the term "zero beat" mean in CW operation?

84/427

When sending CW, what does a "C" mean when added to the RST report?

85/427

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

86/427

What does the Q signal "QSL" mean?

87/427

What does the Q signal "QRN" mean?

88/427

What does the Q signal "QRV" mean?

89/427

What is the Volunteer Monitor Program?

90/427

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitor Program?

91/427

What procedure may be used by Volunteer Monitors to localize a station whose continuous carrier is holding a repeater on in their area?

92/427

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

93/427

Which of the following indicates that you are looking for an HF contact with any station?

94/427

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a "long-path" contact with another station?

95/427

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

96/427

Why do many amateurs keep a station log?

97/427

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

98/427

What is QRP operation?

99/427

Why are signal reports typically exchanged at the beginning of an HF contact?

100/427

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

101/427

What is VARA?

102/427

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or VARA transmission?

103/427

Which of the following is good practice when choosing a transmitting frequency to answer a station calling CQ using FT8?

104/427

What is the standard sideband for JT65, JT9, FT4, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK?

105/427

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

106/427

Which of the following is required when using FT8?

107/427

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most digital mode operations commonly found?

108/427

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

109/427

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

110/427

What is the primary purpose of an Amateur Radio Emergency Data Network (AREDN) mesh network?

111/427

Which of the following describes Winlink?

112/427

What is another name for a Winlink Remote Message Server?

113/427

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

114/427

Which of the following is a common location for FT8?

115/427

How does a higher sunspot number affect HF propagation?

116/427

What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the daytime ionospheric propagation?

117/427

Approximately how long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from a solar flare to affect radio propagation on Earth?

118/427

Which of the following are the least reliable bands for long-distance communications during periods of low solar activity?

119/427

What is the solar flux index?

120/427

What is a geomagnetic storm?

121/427

At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support worldwide propagation during daylight hours?

122/427

How can a geomagnetic storm affect HF propagation?

123/427

How can high geomagnetic activity benefit radio communications?

124/427

What causes HF propagation conditions to vary periodically in a 26- to 28-day cycle?

125/427

How long does it take a coronal mass ejection to affect radio propagation on Earth?

126/427

What does the K-index measure?

127/427

What does the A-index measure?

128/427

How is long distance radio communication usually affected by the charged particles that reach Earth from solar coronal holes?

129/427

What is a characteristic of skywave signals arriving at your location by both short-path and long-path propagation?

130/427

What factors affect the MUF?

131/427

Which frequency will have the least attenuation for long-distance skip propagation?

132/427

Which of the following is a way to determine current propagation on a desired band from your station?

133/427

How does the ionosphere affect radio waves with frequencies below the MUF and above the LUF?

134/427

What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the LUF?

135/427

What does LUF stand for?

136/427

What does MUF stand for?

137/427

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the F2 region?

138/427

What is the approximate maximum distance along the Earth's surface normally covered in one hop using the E region?

139/427

What happens to HF propagation when the LUF exceeds the MUF?

140/427

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

141/427

Which ionospheric region is closest to the surface of Earth?

142/427

What is meant by the term "critical frequency" at a given incidence angle?

143/427

Why is skip propagation via the F2 region longer than that via the other ionospheric regions?

144/427

What does the term "critical angle" mean, as applied to radio wave propagation?

145/427

Why is long-distance communication on the 40-, 60-, 80-, and 160-meter bands more difficult during the day?

146/427

What is a characteristic of HF scatter?

147/427

What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted?

148/427

Why are HF scatter signals in the skip zone usually weak?

149/427

What type of propagation allows signals to be heard in the transmitting station's skip zone?

150/427

What is near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) propagation?

151/427

Which ionospheric region is the most absorbent of signals below 10 MHz during daylight hours?

152/427

What is the purpose of the notch filter found on many HF transceivers?

153/427

What is the benefit of using the opposite or "reverse" sideband when receiving CW?

154/427

How does a noise blanker work?

155/427

What is the effect on plate current of the correct setting of a vacuum-tube RF power amplifier's TUNE control?

156/427

Why is automatic level control (ALC) used with an RF power amplifier?

157/427

What is the purpose of an antenna tuner?

158/427

What happens as a receiver's noise reduction control level is increased?

159/427

What is the correct adjustment for the LOAD or COUPLING control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

160/427

What is the purpose of delaying RF output after activating a transmitter's keying line to an external amplifier?

161/427

What is the function of an electronic keyer?

162/427

Why should the ALC system be inactive when transmitting AFSK data signals?

163/427

Which of the following is a common use of the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

164/427

What is the purpose of using a receive attenuator?

165/427

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

166/427

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

167/427

Which of the following is the best instrument to use for checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

168/427

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

169/427

Why do voltmeters have high input impedance?

170/427

What is an advantage of a digital multimeter as compared to an analog multimeter?

171/427

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

172/427

What transmitter performance parameter does a two-tone test analyze?

173/427

When is an analog multimeter preferred to a digital multimeter?

174/427

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

175/427

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

176/427

What effect can strong signals from nearby transmitters have on an antenna analyzer?

177/427

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

178/427

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency circuits?

179/427

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

180/427

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a single sideband phone transmitter?

181/427

What sound is heard from an audio device experiencing RF interference from a CW transmitter?

182/427

What is a possible cause of high voltages that produce RF burns?

183/427

What is a possible effect of a resonant ground connection?

184/427

Why should soldered joints not be used in lightning protection ground connections?

185/427

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

186/427

How can the effects of ground loops be minimized?

187/427

What could be a symptom caused by a ground loop in your station's audio connections?

188/427

What technique helps to minimize RF "hot spots" in an amateur station?

189/427

Why must all metal enclosures of station equipment be grounded?

190/427

What is the purpose of a speech processor in a transceiver?

191/427

How does a speech processor affect a single sideband phone signal?

192/427

What is the effect of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

193/427

What does an S meter measure?

194/427

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

195/427

How much change in signal strength is typically represented by one S unit?

196/427

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

197/427

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

198/427

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

199/427

How close to the lower edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

200/427

How close to the upper edge of a band's phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

201/427

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

202/427

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

203/427

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF mobile installation?

204/427

Why should DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver not be supplied by a vehicle's auxiliary power socket?

205/427

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

206/427

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

207/427

Which of the following may cause receive interference to an HF transceiver installed in a vehicle?

208/427

In what configuration are the individual cells in a solar panel connected together?

209/427

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

210/427

Why should a series diode be connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

211/427

What precaution should be taken when connecting a solar panel to a lithium iron phosphate battery?

212/427

What happens when inductive and capacitive reactance are equal in a series LC circuit?

213/427

What is reactance?

214/427

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in an inductor?

215/427

Which of the following is opposition to the flow of alternating current in a capacitor?

216/427

How does an inductor react to AC?

217/427

How does a capacitor react to AC?

218/427

What is the term for the inverse of impedance?

219/427

What is impedance?

220/427

What unit is used to measure reactance?

221/427

Which of the following devices can be used for impedance matching at radio frequencies?

222/427

What letter is used to represent reactance?

223/427

What occurs in an LC circuit at resonance?

224/427

What dB change represents a factor of two increase or decrease in power?

225/427

How does the total current relate to the individual currents in a circuit of parallel resistors?

226/427

How many watts of electrical power are consumed if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800-ohm load?

227/427

How many watts of electrical power are consumed by a 12 VDC light bulb that draws 0.2 amperes?

228/427

How many watts are consumed when a current of 7.0 milliamperes flows through a 1,250-ohm resistance?

229/427

What is the PEP produced by 200 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm dummy load?

230/427

What value of an AC signal produces the same power dissipation in a resistor as a DC voltage of the same value?

231/427

What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave with an RMS voltage of 120 volts?

232/427

What is the RMS voltage of a sine wave with a value of 17 volts peak?

233/427

What percentage of power loss is equivalent to a loss of 1 dB?

234/427

What is the ratio of PEP to average power for an unmodulated carrier?

235/427

What is the RMS voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts?

236/427

What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier if the average power is 1060 watts?

237/427

What is the output PEP of 500 volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm load?

238/427

What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer when an AC voltage source is connected across its primary winding?

239/427

What is the output voltage if an input signal is applied to the secondary winding of a 4:1 voltage step-down transformer instead of the primary winding?

240/427

What is the total resistance of a 10-, a 20-, and a 50-ohm resistor connected in parallel?

241/427

What is the approximate total resistance of a 100- and a 200-ohm resistor in parallel?

242/427

Why is the primary winding wire of a voltage step-up transformer usually a larger size than that of the secondary winding?

243/427

What is the voltage output of a transformer with a 500-turn primary and a 1500-turn secondary when 120 VAC is applied to the primary?

244/427

What transformer turns ratio matches an antenna's 600-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm coaxial cable?

245/427

What is the equivalent capacitance of two 5.0-nanofarad capacitors and one 750-picofarad capacitor connected in parallel?

246/427

What is the capacitance of three 100-microfarad capacitors connected in series?

247/427

What is the inductance of three 10-millihenry inductors connected in parallel?

248/427

What is the inductance of a circuit with a 20-millihenry inductor connected in series with a 50-millihenry inductor?

249/427

What is the capacitance of a 20-microfarad capacitor connected in series with a 50-microfarad capacitor?

250/427

Which of the following components should be added to a capacitor to increase the capacitance?

251/427

Which of the following components should be added to an inductor to increase the inductance?

252/427

What is the minimum allowable discharge voltage for maximum life of a standard 12-volt lead-acid battery?

253/427

What is an advantage of batteries with low internal resistance?

254/427

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a germanium diode?

255/427

Which of the following is characteristic of an electrolytic capacitor?

256/427

What is the approximate forward threshold voltage of a silicon junction diode?

257/427

Why should wire-wound resistors not be used in RF circuits?

258/427

What are the operating points for a bipolar transistor used as a switch?

259/427

Which of the following is characteristic of low voltage ceramic capacitors?

260/427

Which of the following describes MOSFET construction?

261/427

Which element of a vacuum tube regulates the flow of electrons between cathode and plate?

262/427

What happens when an inductor is operated above its self-resonant frequency?

263/427

What is the primary purpose of a screen grid in a vacuum tube?

264/427

What determines the performance of a ferrite core at different frequencies?

265/427

What is meant by the term MMIC?

266/427

Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS integrated circuits compared to TTL integrated circuits?

267/427

What is a typical upper frequency limit for low SWR operation of 50-ohm BNC connectors?

268/427

What is an advantage of using a ferrite core toroidal inductor?

269/427

What kind of device is an integrated circuit operational amplifier?

270/427

Which of the following describes a type N connector?

271/427

How is an LED biased when emitting light?

272/427

How does a ferrite bead or core reduce common-mode RF current on the shield of a coaxial cable?

273/427

What is an SMA connector?

274/427

Which of these connector types is commonly used for low frequency or dc signal connections to a transceiver?

275/427

What is the function of a power supply bleeder resistor?

276/427

Which of the following components are used in a power supply filter network?

277/427

Which type of rectifier circuit uses two diodes and a center-tapped transformer?

278/427

What is characteristic of a half-wave rectifier in a power supply?

279/427

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a half-wave rectifier?

280/427

What portion of the AC cycle is converted to DC by a full-wave rectifier?

281/427

What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to a resistive load?

282/427

Which of the following is characteristic of a switchmode power supply as compared to a linear power supply?

283/427

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a field effect transistor?

284/427

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents a Zener diode?

285/427

Which symbol in figure G7-1 represents an NPN junction transistor?

286/427

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a solid core transformer?

287/427

Which symbol in Figure G7-1 represents a tapped inductor?

288/427

What is the purpose of neutralizing an amplifier?

289/427

Which of these classes of amplifiers has the highest efficiency?

290/427

Which of the following describes the function of a two-input AND gate?

291/427

In a Class A amplifier, what percentage of the time does the amplifying device conduct?

292/427

How many states does a 3-bit binary counter have?

293/427

What is a shift register?

294/427

Which of the following are basic components of a sine wave oscillator?

295/427

How is the efficiency of an RF power amplifier determined?

296/427

What determines the frequency of an LC oscillator?

297/427

Which of the following describes a linear amplifier?

298/427

For which of the following modes is a Class C power stage appropriate for amplifying a modulated signal?

299/427

What circuit is used to select one of the sidebands from a balanced modulator?

300/427

What output is produced by a balanced modulator?

301/427

What is one reason to use an impedance matching transformer at a transmitter output?

302/427

How is a product detector used?

303/427

Which of the following is characteristic of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

304/427

Which of the following is an advantage of a digital signal processing (DSP) filter compared to an analog filter?

305/427

What term specifies a filter's attenuation inside its passband?

306/427

Which parameter affects receiver sensitivity?

307/427

What is the phase difference between the I and Q RF signals that software-defined radio (SDR) equipment uses for modulation and demodulation?

308/427

What is an advantage of using I-Q modulation with software-defined radios (SDRs)?

309/427

Which of these functions is performed by software in a software-defined radio (SDR)?

310/427

What is the frequency above which a low-pass filter's output power is less than half the input power?

311/427

What term specifies a filter's maximum ability to reject signals outside its passband?

312/427

The bandwidth of a band-pass filter is measured between what two frequencies?

313/427

How is direct binary FSK modulation generated?

314/427

What is the name of the process that changes the phase angle of an RF signal to convey information?

315/427

What is the name of the process that changes the instantaneous frequency of an RF wave to convey information?

316/427

What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to a transmitter RF amplifier stage?

317/427

What type of modulation varies the instantaneous power level of the RF signal?

318/427

Which of the following is characteristic of QPSK31?

319/427

Which of the following phone emissions uses the narrowest bandwidth?

320/427

Which of the following is an effect of overmodulation?

321/427

What type of modulation is used by FT8?

322/427

What is meant by the term "flat-topping" when referring to an amplitude-modulated phone signal?

323/427

What is the modulation envelope of an AM signal?

324/427

What is QPSK modulation?

325/427

What is a link budget?

326/427

What is link margin?

327/427

Which mixer input is varied or tuned to convert signals of different frequencies to an intermediate frequency (IF)?

328/427

What is the term for interference from a signal at twice the IF frequency from the desired signal?

329/427

What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals?

330/427

What is the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that generates a harmonic of a lower frequency signal to reach the desired operating frequency?

331/427

Which intermodulation products are closest to the original signal frequencies?

332/427

What is the total bandwidth of an FM phone transmission having 5 kHz deviation and 3 kHz modulating frequency?

333/427

What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21 MHz reactance modulated oscillator in a 5 kHz deviation, 146.52 MHz FM phone transmitter?

334/427

Why is it important to know the duty cycle of the mode you are using when transmitting?

335/427

Why is it good to match receiver bandwidth to the bandwidth of the operating mode?

336/427

What is the relationship between transmitted symbol rate and bandwidth?

337/427

What combination of a mixer's Local Oscillator (LO) and RF input frequencies is found in the output?

338/427

What process combines two signals in a non-linear circuit to produce unwanted spurious outputs?

339/427

Which of the following is an odd-order intermodulation product of frequencies F1 and F2?

340/427

On what band do amateurs share channels with the unlicensed Wi-Fi service?

341/427

Which digital mode is used as a low-power beacon for assessing HF propagation?

342/427

What part of a packet radio frame contains the routing and handling information?

343/427

Which of the following describes Baudot code?

344/427

In an ARQ mode, what is meant by a NAK response to a transmitted packet?

345/427

What action results from a failure to exchange information due to excessive transmission attempts when using an ARQ mode?

346/427

Which of the following narrow-band digital modes can receive signals with very low signal-to-noise ratios?

347/427

Which of the following statements is true about PSK31?

348/427

Which is true of mesh network microwave nodes?

349/427

How does forward error correction (FEC) allow the receiver to correct data errors?

350/427

How are the two separate frequencies of a Frequency Shift Keyed (FSK) signal identified?

351/427

Which type of code is used for sending characters in a PSK31 signal?

352/427

What is indicated on a waterfall display by one or more vertical lines on either side of a data mode or RTTY signal?

353/427

Which of the following describes a waterfall display?

354/427

What does an FT8 signal report of +3 mean?

355/427

Which of the following provide digital voice modes?

356/427

Which of the following factors determine the characteristic impedance of a parallel conductor feed line?

357/427

What is the relationship between high standing wave ratio (SWR) and transmission line loss?

358/427

What is the nominal characteristic impedance of "window line" transmission line?

359/427

What causes reflected power at an antenna's feed point?

360/427

How does the attenuation of coaxial cable change with increasing frequency?

361/427

In what units is RF feed line loss usually expressed?

362/427

What must be done to prevent standing waves on a feed line connected to an antenna?

363/427

If the SWR on an antenna feed line is 5:1, and a matching network at the transmitter end of the feed line is adjusted to present a 1:1 SWR to the transmitter, what is the resulting SWR on the feed line?

364/427

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 200-ohm resistive load?

365/427

What standing wave ratio results from connecting a 50-ohm feed line to a 10-ohm resistive load?

366/427

What is the effect of transmission line loss on SWR measured at the input to the line?

367/427

What is a characteristic of a random-wire HF antenna connected directly to the transmitter?

368/427

Which of the following is a common way to adjust the feed point impedance of an elevated quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna to be approximately 50 ohms?

369/427

Which of the following best describes the radiation pattern of a quarter-wave ground-plane vertical antenna?

370/427

What is the radiation pattern of a dipole antenna in free space in a plane containing the conductor?

371/427

How does antenna height affect the azimuthal radiation pattern of a horizontal dipole HF antenna at elevation angles higher than about 45 degrees?

372/427

Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be placed?

373/427

How does the feed point impedance of a horizontal 1/2 wave dipole antenna change as the antenna height is reduced to 1/10 wavelength above ground?

374/427

How does the feed point impedance of a 1/2 wave dipole change as the feed point is moved from the center toward the ends?

375/427

Which of the following is an advantage of using a horizontally polarized as compared to a vertically polarized HF antenna?

376/427

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 14.250 MHz?

377/427

What is the approximate length for a 1/2 wave dipole antenna cut for 3.550 MHz?

378/427

What is the approximate length for a 1/4 wave monopole antenna cut for 28.5 MHz?

379/427

Which of the following would increase the bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

380/427

What is the approximate length of the driven element of a Yagi antenna?

381/427

How do the lengths of a three-element Yagi reflector and director compare to that of the driven element?

382/427

How does antenna gain in dBi compare to gain stated in dBd for the same antenna?

383/427

What is the primary effect of increasing boom length and adding directors to a Yagi antenna?

384/427

What does "front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna?

385/427

What is meant by the "main lobe" of a directive antenna?

386/427

In free space, how does the gain of two three-element, horizontally polarized Yagi antennas spaced vertically 1/2 wavelength apart typically compare to the gain of a single three-element Yagi?

387/427

Which of the following can be adjusted to optimize forward gain, front-to-back ratio, or SWR bandwidth of a Yagi antenna?

388/427

What is a beta or hairpin match?

389/427

Which of the following is a characteristic of using a gamma match with a Yagi antenna?

390/427

Which of the following antenna types will be most effective as a near vertical incidence skywave (NVIS) antenna for short-skip communications on 40 meters during the day?

391/427

What is the feed point impedance of an end-fed half-wave antenna?

392/427

In which direction is the maximum radiation from a VHF/UHF "halo" antenna?

393/427

What is the primary function of antenna traps?

394/427

What is an advantage of vertically stacking horizontally polarized Yagi antennas?

395/427

Which of the following is an advantage of a log-periodic antenna?

396/427

Which of the following describes a log-periodic antenna?

397/427

How does a "screwdriver" mobile antenna adjust its feed point impedance?

398/427

What is the primary use of a Beverage antenna?

399/427

In which direction or directions does an electrically small loop (less than 1/10 wavelength in circumference) have nulls in its radiation pattern?

400/427

Which of the following is a disadvantage of multiband antennas?

401/427

What is the common name of a dipole with a single central support?

402/427

What is one way that RF energy can affect human body tissue?

403/427

Which of the following is used to determine RF exposure from a transmitted signal?

404/427

How can you determine that your station complies with FCC RF exposure regulations?

405/427

What does "time averaging" mean when evaluating RF radiation exposure?

406/427

What must you do if an evaluation of your station shows that the RF energy radiated by your station exceeds permissible limits for possible human absorption?

407/427

What must you do if your station fails to meet the FCC RF exposure exemption criteria?

408/427

What is the effect of modulation duty cycle on RF exposure?

409/427

Which of the following steps must an amateur operator take to ensure compliance with RF safety regulations?

410/427

What type of instrument can be used to accurately measure an RF field strength?

411/427

What should be done if evaluation shows that a neighbor might experience more than the allowable limit of RF exposure from the main lobe of a directional antenna?

412/427

What precaution should be taken if you install an indoor transmitting antenna?

413/427

What stations are subject to the FCC rules on RF exposure?

414/427

Which wire or wires in a four-conductor 240 VAC circuit should be attached to fuses or circuit breakers?

415/427

According to the National Electrical Code, what is the minimum wire size that may be used safely for wiring with a 20-ampere circuit breaker?

416/427

Which size of fuse or circuit breaker would be appropriate to use with a circuit that uses AWG number 14 wiring?

417/427

Where should the station's lightning protection ground system be located?

418/427

Which of the following conditions will cause a ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI) to disconnect AC power?

419/427

Which of the following is covered by the National Electrical Code?

420/427

Which of these choices should be observed when climbing a tower using a safety harness?

421/427

What should be done before climbing a tower that supports electrically powered devices?

422/427

Which of the following is true of an emergency generator installation?

423/427

Which of the following is a danger from lead-tin solder?

424/427

Which of the following is required for lightning protection ground rods?

425/427

What is the purpose of a power supply interlock?

426/427

Where should lightning arrestors be located?

427/427