Extra Flash Cards

Why is it not legal to transmit a 3 kHz bandwidth USB signal with a carrier frequency of 14.348 MHz?

1/603

When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

2/603

What is the highest legal carrier frequency on the 20-meter band for transmitting a 2.8 kHz wide USB data signal?

3/603

May an Extra class operator answer the CQ of a station on 3.601 MHz LSB phone?

4/603

Who must be in physical control of the station apparatus of an amateur station aboard any vessel or craft that is documented or registered in the United States?

5/603

What is the required transmit frequency of a CW signal for channelized 60 meter operation?

6/603

What is the maximum power permitted on the 2200-meter band?

7/603

If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation?

8/603

Except in some parts of Alaska, what is the maximum power permitted on the 630-meter band?

9/603

If an amateur station is installed aboard a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated?

10/603

What licensing is required when operating an amateur station aboard a US-registered vessel in international waters?

11/603

Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission?

12/603

Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for digital voice or slow-scan TV transmissions made on the HF amateur bands?

13/603

Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference?

14/603

What must the control operator of a repeater operating in the 70-centimeter band do if a radiolocation system experiences interference from that repeater?

15/603

What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?

16/603

Which of the following additional rules apply if you are erecting an amateur station antenna structure at a site at or near a public use airport?

17/603

To what type of regulations does PRB-1 apply?

18/603

What limitations may the FCC place on an amateur station if its signal causes interference to domestic broadcast reception, assuming that the receivers involved are of good engineering design?

19/603

Which amateur stations may be operated under RACES rules?

20/603

What frequencies are authorized to an amateur station operating under RACES rules?

21/603

What does PRB-1 require of state and local regulations affecting amateur radio antenna size and structures?

22/603

What is the maximum bandwidth for a data emission on 60 meters?

23/603

Which of the following apply to communications transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

24/603

How long must an operator wait after filing a notification with the Utilities Technology Council (UTC) before operating on the 2200-meter or 630-meter band?

25/603

What is an IARP?

26/603

Under what situation may a station transmit third party communications while being automatically controlled?

27/603

Which of the following is required in order to operate in accordance with CEPT rules in foreign countries where permitted?

28/603

What notifications must be given before transmitting on the 630- or 2200-meter bands?

29/603

What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions?

30/603

What is the highest modulation index permitted at the highest modulation frequency for angle modulation below 29.0 MHz?

31/603

What is the maximum mean power level for a spurious emission below 30 MHz with respect to the fundamental emission?

32/603

Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US?

33/603

In what portion of the 630-meter band are phone emissions permitted?

34/603

What is the definition of telemetry?

35/603

Which of the following may transmit encrypted messages?

36/603

What is a space telecommand station?

37/603

Which of the following is required in the identification transmissions from a balloon-borne telemetry station?

38/603

What must be posted at the location of a station being operated by telecommand on or within 50 kilometers of the Earth's surface?

39/603

What is the maximum permitted transmitter output power when operating a model craft by telecommand?

40/603

Which group of HF amateur bands include allocations for space stations?

41/603

Which VHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

42/603

Which UHF amateur bands have frequencies authorized for space stations?

43/603

Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations of space stations, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator of the station?

44/603

Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

45/603

Which of the following amateur stations may transmit one-way communications?

46/603

For which types of out-of-pocket expenses do the Part 97 rules state that VEs and VECs may be reimbursed?

47/603

Who is tasked by Part 97 with maintaining the pools of questions for all US amateur license examinations?

48/603

What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator?

49/603

What is required to be accredited as a Volunteer Examiner?

50/603

What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam?

51/603

Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session?

52/603

What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination?

53/603

To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination?

54/603

What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination?

55/603

What must the administering VEs do after the administration of a successful examination for an amateur operator license?

56/603

What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license?

57/603

On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted?

58/603

What privileges are authorized in the US to persons holding an amateur service license granted by the government of Canada?

59/603

Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification?

60/603

Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"?

61/603

Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located in the contiguous 48 states and north of Line A?

62/603

Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a Special Temporary Authority (STA) to an amateur station?

63/603

When may an amateur station send a message to a business?

64/603

Which of the following types of amateur station communications are prohibited?

65/603

Which of the following cannot be transmitted over an amateur radio mesh network?

66/603

Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?

67/603

Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification?

68/603

What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite?

69/603

Which of the following is characteristic of an inverting linear transponder?

70/603

How is an upload signal processed by an inverting linear transponder?

71/603

What is meant by the "mode" of an amateur radio satellite?

72/603

What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify?

73/603

What are Keplerian elements?

74/603

Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

75/603

Why should effective radiated power (ERP) be limited to a satellite that uses a linear transponder?

76/603

What do the terms "L band" and "S band" specify?

77/603

What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky?

78/603

What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation?

79/603

What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an amateur radio satellite?

80/603

Which of the following techniques is used by digital satellites to relay messages?

81/603

In digital television, what does a coding rate of 3/4 mean?

82/603

How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame?

83/603

How is an interlaced scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system?

84/603

How is color information sent in analog SSTV?

85/603

Which of the following describes the use of vestigial sideband in analog fast-scan TV transmissions?

86/603

What is vestigial sideband modulation?

87/603

Which types of modulation are used for amateur television DVB-T signals?

88/603

What technique allows commercial analog TV receivers to be used for fast-scan TV operations on the 70-centimeter band?

89/603

What kind of receiver can be used to receive and decode SSTV using the Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) protocol?

90/603

What aspect of an analog slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture?

91/603

What is the function of the vertical interval signaling (VIS) code sent as part of an SSTV transmission?

92/603

What signals SSTV receiving software to begin a new picture line?

93/603

What indicator is required to be used by US-licensed operators when operating a station via remote control and the remote transmitter is located in the US?

94/603

Which of the following file formats is used for exchanging amateur radio log data?

95/603

From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

96/603

Which of the following frequencies can be used for amateur radio mesh networks?

97/603

What is the function of a DX QSL Manager?

98/603

During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of SSB or CW activity?

99/603

What is the Cabrillo format?

100/603

Which of the following contacts may be confirmed through the Logbook of The World (LoTW)?

101/603

What type of equipment is commonly used to implement an amateur radio mesh network?

102/603

Why do DX stations often transmit and receive on different frequencies?

103/603

How should you generally identify your station when attempting to contact a DX station during a contest or in a pileup?

104/603

What indicates the delay between a control operator action and the corresponding change in the transmitted signal?

105/603

Which of the following digital modes is designed for meteor scatter communications?

106/603

What information replaces signal-to-noise ratio when using the FT8 or FT4 modes in a VHF contest?

107/603

Which of the following digital modes is designed for EME communications?

108/603

What technology is used for real-time tracking of balloons carrying amateur radio transmitters?

109/603

What is the characteristic of the JT65 mode?

110/603

Which of the following is a method for establishing EME contacts?

111/603

What digital protocol is used by APRS?

112/603

What type of packet frame is used to transmit APRS beacon data?

113/603

What type of modulation is used by JT65?

114/603

What does the packet path WIDE3-1 designate?

115/603

How do APRS stations relay data?

116/603

Which of the following types of modulation is used for data emissions below 30 MHz?

117/603

Which of the following synchronizes WSJT-X digital mode transmit/receive timing?

118/603

To what does the "4" in FT4 refer?

119/603

Which of the following is characteristic of the FST4 mode?

120/603

Which of these digital modes does not support keyboard-to-keyboard operation?

121/603

What is the length of an FT8 transmission cycle?

122/603

How does Q65 differ from JT65?

123/603

Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files?

124/603

Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length character coding?

125/603

Which of these digital modes has the narrowest bandwidth?

126/603

What is the difference between direct FSK and audio FSK?

127/603

How do ALE stations establish contact?

128/603

Which of these digital modes has the highest data throughput under clear communication conditions?

129/603

What is the approximate maximum separation measured along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by EME?

130/603

What characterizes libration fading of an EME signal?

131/603

When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

132/603

In what direction does an electromagnetic wave travel?

133/603

How are the component fields of an electromagnetic wave oriented?

134/603

What should be done to continue a long-distance contact when the MUF for that path decreases due to darkness?

135/603

Atmospheric ducts capable of propagating microwave signals often form over what geographic feature?

136/603

When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a linear ionized region is formed at what region of the ionosphere?

137/603

Which of the following frequency ranges is most suited for meteor-scatter communications?

138/603

What determines the speed of electromagnetic waves through a medium?

139/603

What is a typical range for tropospheric duct propagation of microwave signals?

140/603

What is most likely to result in auroral propagation?

141/603

Which of these emission modes is best for auroral propagation?

142/603

What are circularly polarized electromagnetic waves?

143/603

Where is transequatorial propagation (TEP) most likely to occur?

144/603

What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation?

145/603

At what time of day is transequatorial propagation most likely to occur?

146/603

What are "extraordinary" and "ordinary" waves?

147/603

Which of the following paths is most likely to support long-distance propagation on 160 meters?

148/603

On which of the following amateur bands is long-path propagation most frequent?

149/603

What effect does lowering a signal's transmitted elevation angle have on ionospheric HF skip propagation?

150/603

How does the maximum range of ground-wave propagation change when the signal frequency is increased?

151/603

At what time of year is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

152/603

What is the effect of chordal-hop propagation?

153/603

At what time of day is sporadic-E propagation most likely to occur?

154/603

What is chordal-hop propagation?

155/603

What type of polarization is supported by ground-wave propagation?

156/603

What is the cause of short-term radio blackouts?

157/603

What is indicated by a rising A-index or K-index?

158/603

Which of the following signal paths is most likely to experience high levels of absorption when the A-index or K-index is elevated?

159/603

What does the value of Bz (B sub z) represent?

160/603

What orientation of Bz (B sub z) increases the likelihood that charged particles from the Sun will cause disturbed conditions?

161/603

How does the VHF/UHF radio horizon compare to the geographic horizon?

162/603

Which of the following indicates the greatest solar flare intensity?

163/603

Which of the following is the space-weather term for an extreme geomagnetic storm?

164/603

What type of data is reported by amateur radio propagation reporting networks?

165/603

What does the 304A solar parameter measure?

166/603

What does VOACAP software model?

167/603

Which of the following is indicated by a sudden rise in radio background noise across a large portion of the HF spectrum?

168/603

Which of the following limits the highest frequency signal that can be accurately displayed on a digital oscilloscope?

169/603

Which of the following parameters does a spectrum analyzer display on the vertical and horizontal axes?

170/603

Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals and/or intermodulation distortion products generated by an SSB transmitter?

171/603

How is compensation of an oscilloscope probe performed?

172/603

What is the purpose of using a prescaler with a frequency counter?

173/603

What is the effect of aliasing on a digital oscilloscope when displaying a waveform?

174/603

Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer compared to an SWR bridge?

175/603

Which of the following is used to measure SWR?

176/603

Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe?

177/603

Which trigger mode is most effective when using an oscilloscope to measure a linear power supply's output ripple?

178/603

Which of the following can be measured with an antenna analyzer?

179/603

Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter?

180/603

What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt?

181/603

Which S parameter is equivalent to forward gain?

182/603

Which S parameter represents input port return loss or reflection coefficient (equivalent to VSWR)?

183/603

What three test loads are used to calibrate an RF vector network analyzer?

184/603

How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power?

185/603

What do the subscripts of S parameters represent?

186/603

Which of the following can be used to determine the Q of a series-tuned circuit?

187/603

Which of the following can be measured by a two-port vector network analyzer?

188/603

Which of the following methods measures intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

189/603

Which of the following can be measured with a vector network analyzer?

190/603

What is an effect of excessive phase noise in an SDR receiver's master clock oscillator?

191/603

Which of the following receiver circuits can be effective in eliminating interference from strong out-of-band signals?

192/603

What is the term for the suppression in an FM receiver of one signal by another stronger signal on the same frequency?

193/603

What is the noise figure of a receiver?

194/603

What does a receiver noise floor of -174 dBm represent?

195/603

How much does increasing a receiver's bandwidth from 50 Hz to 1,000 Hz increase the receiver's noise floor?

196/603

What does the MDS of a receiver represent?

197/603

An SDR receiver is overloaded when input signals exceed what level?

198/603

Which of the following choices is a good reason for selecting a high IF for a superheterodyne HF or VHF communications receiver?

199/603

What is an advantage of having a variety of receiver bandwidths from which to select?

200/603

Why does input attenuation reduce receiver overload on the lower frequency HF bands with little or no impact on signal-to-noise ratio?

201/603

How does a narrow-band roofing filter affect receiver performance?

202/603

What is reciprocal mixing?

203/603

What is the purpose of the receiver IF Shift control?

204/603

What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver?

205/603

Which of the following describes problems caused by poor dynamic range in a receiver?

206/603

What creates intermodulation interference between two repeaters in close proximity?

207/603

Which of the following is used to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference in a repeater caused by a nearby transmitter?

208/603

What transmitter frequencies would create an intermodulation-product signal in a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz when a nearby station transmits on 146.52 MHz?

209/603

What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency?

210/603

Which of the following reduces the likelihood of receiver desensitization?

211/603

What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?

212/603

What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver?

213/603

What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance?

214/603

Why are odd-order intermodulation products, created within a receiver, of particular interest compared to other products?

215/603

What is the link margin in a system with a transmit power level of 100 W (+40 dBm), a system antenna gain of 10 dBi, a cable loss of 3 dB, a path loss of 136 dB, a receiver minimum discernable signal of -103 dBm, and a required signal-to-noise ratio of 6 dB?

216/603

What is the received signal level with a transmit power of 100 W (+40 dBm), a transmit antenna gain of 6 dBi, a receive antenna gain of 3 dBi, and a path loss of 100 dB?

217/603

What power level does a receiver minimum discernible signal of -100 dBm represent?

218/603

What problem can occur when using an automatic notch filter (ANF) to remove interfering carriers while receiving CW signals?

219/603

Which of the following types of noise can often be reduced by a digital noise reduction?

220/603

Which of the following types of noise are removed by a noise blanker?

221/603

How can conducted noise from an automobile battery charging system be suppressed?

222/603

What is used to suppress radio frequency interference from a line-driven AC motor?

223/603

What type of electrical interference can be caused by computer network equipment?

224/603

Which of the following can cause shielded cables to radiate or receive interference?

225/603

What current flows equally on all conductors of an unshielded multiconductor cable?

226/603

What undesirable effect can occur when using a noise blanker?

227/603

Which of the following can create intermittent loud roaring or buzzing AC line interference?

228/603

What could be the cause of local AM broadcast band signals combining to generate spurious signals on the MF or HF bands?

229/603

What causes interference received as a series of carriers at regular intervals across a wide frequency range?

230/603

Where should a station AC surge protector be installed?

231/603

What is the purpose of a single point ground panel?

232/603

What can cause the voltage across reactances in a series RLC circuit to be higher than the voltage applied to the entire circuit?

233/603

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 40 picofarads?

234/603

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

235/603

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

236/603

What is the result of increasing the Q of an impedance-matching circuit?

237/603

What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel LC circuit at resonance?

238/603

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel RLC circuit at resonance?

239/603

What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit at resonance?

240/603

How is the Q of an RLC parallel resonant circuit calculated?

241/603

What is the resonant frequency of an RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenries, and C is 10 picofarads?

242/603

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?

243/603

What is the half-power bandwidth of a resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?

244/603

What is an effect of increasing Q in a series resonant circuit?

245/603

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied voltage or to discharge to 36.8% of its initial voltage?

246/603

What letter is commonly used to represent susceptance?

247/603

How is impedance in polar form converted to an equivalent admittance?

248/603

What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors, all in parallel?

249/603

What is the effect on the magnitude of pure reactance when it is converted to susceptance?

250/603

What is susceptance?

251/603

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms?

252/603

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 300 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms?

253/603

What is the relationship between the AC current through a capacitor and the voltage across a capacitor?

254/603

What is the relationship between the AC current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor?

255/603

What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms?

256/603

What is admittance?

257/603

Which of the following represents pure capacitive reactance of 100 ohms in rectangular notation?

258/603

How are impedances described in polar coordinates?

259/603

Which of the following represents a pure inductive reactance in polar coordinates?

260/603

What type of Y-axis scale is most often used for graphs of circuit frequency response?

261/603

What kind of diagram is used to show the phase relationship between impedances at a given frequency?

262/603

What does the impedance 50 - j25 ohms represent?

263/603

Where is the impedance of a pure resistance plotted on rectangular coordinates?

264/603

What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance?

265/603

When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what do the axes represent?

266/603

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400-ohm resistor and a 38-picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz?

267/603

Which point in Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and an 18-microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz?

268/603

Which point on Figure E5-1 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor and a 19-picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz?

269/603

What is the result of conductor skin effect?

270/603

Why is it important to keep lead lengths short for components used in circuits for VHF and above?

271/603

What is the phase relationship between current and voltage for reactive power?

272/603

Why are short connections used at microwave frequencies?

273/603

What parasitic characteristic causes electrolytic capacitors to be unsuitable for use at RF?

274/603

What parasitic characteristic creates an inductor's self-resonance?

275/603

What combines to create the self-resonance of a component?

276/603

What is the primary cause of loss in film capacitors at RF?

277/603

What happens to reactive power in ideal inductors and capacitors?

278/603

As a conductor's diameter increases, what is the effect on its electrical length?

279/603

How much real power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100-ohm resistor in series with a 100-ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere?

280/603

What is reactive power?

281/603

In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material?

282/603

Which of the following semiconductor materials contains excess free electrons?

283/603

Why does a PN-junction diode not conduct current when reverse biased?

284/603

What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure?

285/603

How does DC input impedance at the gate of a field-effect transistor (FET) compare with that of a bipolar transistor?

286/603

What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

287/603

Which of the following indicates that a silicon NPN junction transistor is biased on?

288/603

What is the term for the frequency at which the grounded-base current gain of a bipolar junction transistor has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?

289/603

What is a depletion-mode field-effect transistor (FET)?

290/603

In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET?

291/603

In Figure E6-1, which is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET?

292/603

What is the purpose of connecting Zener diodes between a MOSFET gate and its source or drain?

293/603

What is the most useful characteristic of a Zener diode?

294/603

Which characteristic of a Schottky diode makes it a better choice than a silicon junction diode for use as a power supply rectifier?

295/603

What property of an LED's semiconductor material determines its forward voltage drop?

296/603

What type of semiconductor device is designed for use as a voltage-controlled capacitor?

297/603

What characteristic of a PIN diode makes it useful as an RF switch?

298/603

Which of the following is a common use of a Schottky diode?

299/603

What causes a junction diode to fail from excessive current?

300/603

Which of the following is a Schottky barrier diode?

301/603

What is a common use for point-contact diodes?

302/603

In Figure E6-2, which is the schematic symbol for a Schottky diode?

303/603

What is used to control the attenuation of RF signals by a PIN diode?

304/603

What is the function of hysteresis in a comparator?

305/603

What happens when the level of a comparator's input signal crosses the threshold voltage?

306/603

What is tri-state logic?

307/603

Which of the following is an advantage of BiCMOS logic?

308/603

Which of the following digital logic families has the lowest power consumption?

309/603

Why do CMOS digital integrated circuits have high immunity to noise on the input signal or power supply?

310/603

What best describes a pull-up or pull-down resistor?

311/603

In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NAND gate?

312/603

What is used to design the configuration of a field-programmable gate array (FPGA)?

313/603

In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for a NOR gate?

314/603

In Figure E6-3, which is the schematic symbol for the NOT operation (inversion)?

315/603

What is piezoelectricity?

316/603

What is the equivalent circuit of a quartz crystal?

317/603

Which of the following is an aspect of the piezoelectric effect?

318/603

Why are cores of inductors and transformers sometimes constructed of thin layers?

319/603

How do ferrite and powdered iron compare for use in an inductor core?

320/603

What core material property determines the inductance of an inductor?

321/603

What is the current that flows in the primary winding of a transformer when there is no load on the secondary winding?

322/603

Which of the following materials has the highest temperature stability of its magnetic characteristics?

323/603

What devices are commonly used as VHF and UHF parasitic suppressors at the input and output terminals of a transistor HF amplifier?

324/603

What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a solenoidal core in an inductor?

325/603

Which type of core material decreases inductance when inserted into a coil?

326/603

What causes inductor saturation?

327/603

Why is gallium arsenide (GaAs) useful for semiconductor devices operating at UHF and higher frequencies?

328/603

Which of the following device packages is a through-hole type?

329/603

Which of the following materials supports the highest frequency of operation when used in MMICs?

330/603

Which is the most common input and output impedance of MMICs?

331/603

Which of the following noise figure values is typical of a low-noise UHF preamplifier?

332/603

What characteristics of MMICs make them a popular choice for VHF through microwave circuits?

333/603

What type of transmission line is often used for connections to MMICs?

334/603

How is power supplied to the most common type of MMIC?

335/603

Which of the following component package types have the least parasitic effects at frequencies above the HF range?

336/603

What advantage does surface-mount technology offer at RF compared to using through-hole components?

337/603

What is a characteristic of DIP packaging used for integrated circuits?

338/603

Why are DIP through-hole package ICs not typically used at UHF and higher frequencies?

339/603

What absorbs the energy from light falling on a photovoltaic cell?

340/603

What happens to photoconductive material when light shines on it?

341/603

What is the most common configuration of an optoisolator or optocoupler?

342/603

What is the photovoltaic effect?

343/603

Which of the following describes an optical shaft encoder?

344/603

Which of these materials is most commonly used to create photoconductive devices?

345/603

What is a solid-state relay?

346/603

Why are optoisolators often used in conjunction with solid-state circuits that control 120 VAC circuits?

347/603

What is the efficiency of a photovoltaic cell?

348/603

What is the most common material used in power-generating photovoltaic cells?

349/603

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage produced by a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

350/603

Which circuit is bistable?

351/603

What is the function of a decade counter?

352/603

Which of the following can divide the frequency of a pulse train by 2?

353/603

How many flip-flops are required to divide a signal frequency by 16?

354/603

Which of the following circuits continuously alternates between two states without an external clock signal?

355/603

What is a characteristic of a monostable multivibrator?

356/603

What logical operation does a NAND gate perform?

357/603

What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

358/603

What logical operation is performed by a two-input exclusive NOR gate?

359/603

What is a truth table?

360/603

What does "positive logic" mean in reference to logic devices?

361/603

For what portion of the signal cycle does each active element in a push-pull, Class AB amplifier conduct?

362/603

What is a Class D amplifier?

363/603

What circuit is required at the output of an RF switching amplifier?

364/603

What is the operating point of a Class A common emitter amplifier?

365/603

What can be done to prevent unwanted oscillations in an RF power amplifier?

366/603

What is a characteristic of a grounded-grid amplifier?

367/603

Which of the following is the likely result of using a Class C amplifier to amplify a single-sideband phone signal?

368/603

Why are switching amplifiers more efficient than linear amplifiers?

369/603

What is characteristic of an emitter follower (or common collector) amplifier?

370/603

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R1 and R2?

371/603

In Figure E7-1, what is the purpose of R3?

372/603

What type of amplifier circuit is shown in Figure E7-1?

373/603

How are the capacitors and inductors of a low-pass filter Pi-network arranged between the network's input and output?

374/603

What is the frequency response of a T-network with series capacitors and a shunt inductor?

375/603

What is the purpose of adding an inductor to a Pi-network to create a Pi-L-network?

376/603

How does an impedance-matching circuit transform a complex impedance to a resistive impedance?

377/603

Which filter type has ripple in the passband and a sharp cutoff?

378/603

What are the characteristics of an elliptical filter?

379/603

Which describes a Pi-L network?

380/603

Which of the following is most frequently used as a band-pass or notch filter in VHF and UHF transceivers?

381/603

What is a crystal lattice filter?

382/603

Which of the following filters is used in a 2-meter band repeater duplexer?

383/603

Which of the following measures a filter's ability to reject signals in adjacent channels?

384/603

How does a linear electronic voltage regulator work?

385/603

How does a switchmode voltage regulator work?

386/603

What device is used as a stable voltage reference?

387/603

Which of the following describes a three-terminal voltage regulator?

388/603

Which of the following types of linear voltage regulator operates by loading the unregulated voltage source?

389/603

What is the purpose of Q1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

390/603

What is the purpose of C2 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-2?

391/603

What type of circuit is shown in Figure E7-2?

392/603

How is battery operating time calculated?

393/603

Why is a switching type power supply less expensive and lighter than an equivalent linear power supply?

394/603

What is the purpose of an inverter connected to a solar panel output?

395/603

What is the dropout voltage of a linear voltage regulator?

396/603

Which of the following calculates power dissipated by a series linear voltage regulator?

397/603

What is the purpose of connecting equal-value resistors across power supply filter capacitors connected in series?

398/603

What is the purpose of a step-start circuit in a high-voltage power supply?

399/603

Which of the following can be used to generate FM phone signals?

400/603

What is the function of a reactance modulator?

401/603

What is a frequency discriminator?

402/603

What is one way to produce a single-sideband phone signal?

403/603

What is added to an FM speech channel to boost the higher audio frequencies?

404/603

Why is de-emphasis used in FM communications receivers?

405/603

What is meant by the term "baseband" in radio communications?

406/603

What are the principal frequencies that appear at the output of a mixer?

407/603

What occurs when the input signal levels to a mixer are too high?

408/603

How does a diode envelope detector function?

409/603

Which type of detector is used for demodulating SSB signals?

410/603

What is meant by "direct sampling" in software defined radios?

411/603

What kind of digital signal processing audio filter is used to remove unwanted noise from a received SSB signal?

412/603

What type of digital signal processing filter is used to generate an SSB signal?

413/603

Which method generates an SSB signal using digital signal processing?

414/603

How frequently must an analog signal be sampled to be accurately reproduced?

415/603

What is the minimum number of bits required to sample a signal with a range of 1 volt at a resolution of 1 millivolt?

416/603

What function is performed by a Fast Fourier Transform?

417/603

What is the function of decimation?

418/603

Why is an anti-aliasing filter required in a decimator?

419/603

What aspect of receiver analog-to-digital conversion determines the maximum receive bandwidth of a direct-sampling software defined radio (SDR)?

420/603

What sets the minimum detectable signal level for a direct-sampling software defined receiver in the absence of atmospheric or thermal noise?

421/603

Which of the following is generally true of Finite Impulse Response (FIR) filters?

422/603

What is the function of taps in a digital signal processing filter?

423/603

Which of the following would allow a digital signal processing filter to create a sharper filter response?

424/603

What is the typical output impedance of an op-amp?

425/603

What is the frequency response of the circuit in E7-3 if a capacitor is added across the feedback resistor?

426/603

What is the typical input impedance of an op-amp?

427/603

What is meant by the term "op-amp input offset voltage"?

428/603

How can unwanted ringing and audio instability be prevented in an op-amp audio filter?

429/603

What is the gain-bandwidth of an operational amplifier?

430/603

What voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 10 ohms and RF is 470 ohms?

431/603

How does the gain of an ideal operational amplifier vary with frequency?

432/603

What will be the output voltage of the circuit shown in Figure E7-3 if R1 is 1,000 ohms, RF is 10,000 ohms, and 0.23 volts DC is applied to the input?

433/603

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 1,800 ohms and RF is 68 kilohms?

434/603

What absolute voltage gain can be expected from the circuit in Figure E7-3 when R1 is 3,300 ohms and RF is 47 kilohms?

435/603

What is an operational amplifier?

436/603

What are three common oscillator circuits?

437/603

What is a microphonic?

438/603

What is a phase-locked loop?

439/603

How is positive feedback supplied in a Colpitts oscillator?

440/603

How is positive feedback supplied in a Pierce oscillator?

441/603

Which of these functions can be performed by a phase-locked loop?

442/603

How can an oscillator's microphonic responses be reduced?

443/603

Which of the following components can be used to reduce thermal drift in crystal oscillators?

444/603

What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital-to-analog converter, and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

445/603

What information is contained in the lookup table of a direct digital synthesizer (DDS)?

446/603

What are the major spectral impurity components of direct digital synthesizers?

447/603

Which of the following ensures that a crystal oscillator operates on the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

448/603

Which of the following is a technique for providing highly accurate and stable oscillators needed for microwave transmission and reception?

449/603

What technique shows that a square wave is made up of a sine wave and its odd harmonics?

450/603

Which of the following is a type of analog-to-digital conversion?

451/603

Which of the following describes a signal in the time domain?

452/603

What is "dither" with respect to analog-to-digital converters?

453/603

What is the benefit of making voltage measurements with a true-RMS calculating meter?

454/603

What is the approximate ratio of PEP-to-average power in an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

455/603

What determines the PEP-to-average power ratio of an unprocessed single-sideband phone signal?

456/603

Why are direct or flash conversion analog-to-digital converters used for a software defined radio?

457/603

How many different input levels can be encoded by an analog-to-digital converter with 8-bit resolution?

458/603

What is the purpose of a low-pass filter used at the output of a digital-to-analog converter?

459/603

Which of the following is a measure of the quality of an analog-to-digital converter?

460/603

What is the modulation index of an FM signal?

461/603

How does the modulation index of a phase-modulated emission vary with RF carrier frequency?

462/603

What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency deviation of 3000 Hz either side of the carrier frequency if the highest modulating frequency is 1000 Hz?

463/603

What is the modulation index of an FM phone signal having a maximum carrier deviation of plus or minus 6 kHz if the highest modulating frequency is 2 kHz?

464/603

What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3 kHz?

465/603

What is the deviation ratio of an FM phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of plus or minus 7.5 kHz if the highest modulation frequency is 3.5 kHz?

466/603

Orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM) is a technique used for which types of amateur communication?

467/603

What describes orthogonal frequency-division multiplexing (OFDM)?

468/603

What is deviation ratio?

469/603

What is frequency division multiplexing (FDM)?

470/603

What is digital time division multiplexing?

471/603

What is Quadrature Amplitude Modulation or QAM?

472/603

What is the definition of symbol rate in a digital transmission?

473/603

Why should the phase of a PSK signal be changed at the zero crossing of the RF signal?

474/603

What technique minimizes the bandwidth of a PSK31 signal?

475/603

What is the approximate bandwidth of a 13-WPM International Morse Code transmission?

476/603

What is the bandwidth of an FT8 signal?

477/603

What is the bandwidth of a 4,800-Hz frequency shift, 9,600-baud ASCII FM transmission?

478/603

How does ARQ accomplish error correction?

479/603

Which digital code allows only one bit to change between sequential code values?

480/603

How can data rate be increased without increasing bandwidth?

481/603

What is the relationship between symbol rate and baud?

482/603

What factors affect the bandwidth of a transmitted CW signal?

483/603

What is described by the constellation diagram of a QAM or QPSK signal?

484/603

What type of addresses do nodes have in a mesh network?

485/603

What technique do individual nodes use to form a mesh network?

486/603

Why are received spread spectrum signals resistant to interference?

487/603

What spread spectrum communications technique uses a high-speed binary bit stream to shift the phase of an RF carrier?

488/603

Which describes spread spectrum frequency hopping?

489/603

What is the primary effect of extremely short rise or fall time on a CW signal?

490/603

What is the most common method of reducing key clicks?

491/603

What is the advantage of including parity bits in ASCII characters?

492/603

What is a common cause of overmodulation of AFSK signals?

493/603

What parameter evaluates distortion of an AFSK signal caused by excessive input audio levels?

494/603

What is considered an acceptable maximum IMD level for an idling PSK signal?

495/603

What are some of the differences between the Baudot digital code and ASCII?

496/603

What is one advantage of using ASCII code for data communications?

497/603

What is an isotropic radiator?

498/603

What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 150 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.2 dB duplexer loss, and 7 dBd antenna gain?

499/603

What term describing total radiated power takes into account all gains and losses?

500/603

Which of the following factors affect the feed point impedance of an antenna?

501/603

What does the term "foreground gain" mean?

502/603

What is the effective radiated power (ERP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 4 dB feed line loss, 3.2 dB duplexer loss, 0.8 dB circulator loss, and 10 dBd antenna gain?

503/603

What is the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) of a repeater station with 200 watts transmitter power output, 2 dB feed line loss, 2.8 dB duplexer loss, 1.2 dB circulator loss, and 7 dBi antenna gain?

504/603

Which frequency band has the smallest first Fresnel zone?

505/603

What is antenna efficiency?

506/603

Which of the following improves the efficiency of a ground-mounted quarter-wave vertical antenna?

507/603

Which of the following determines ground losses for a ground-mounted vertical antenna operating on HF?

508/603

How much gain does an antenna have compared to a half-wavelength dipole if it has 6 dB gain over an isotropic radiator?

509/603

What is the 3 dB beamwidth of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

510/603

What is the front-to-back ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

511/603

What is the front-to-side ratio of the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-1?

512/603

What is the front-to-back ratio of the radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

513/603

What type of antenna pattern is shown in Figure E9-2?

514/603

What is the elevation angle of peak response in the antenna radiation pattern shown in Figure E9-2?

515/603

What is the difference in radiated power between a lossless antenna with gain and an isotropic radiator driven by the same power?

516/603

What is the far field of an antenna?

517/603

What type of analysis is commonly used for modeling antennas?

518/603

What is the principle of a Method of Moments analysis?

519/603

What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below 10 segments per half-wavelength?

520/603

What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed 180 degrees out of phase?

521/603

What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/4-wavelength apart and fed 90 degrees out of phase?

522/603

What type of radiation pattern is created by two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

523/603

What happens to the radiation pattern of an unterminated long wire antenna as the wire length is increased?

524/603

What is the purpose of feeding an off-center-fed dipole (OCFD) between the center and one end instead of at the midpoint?

525/603

What is the effect of adding a terminating resistor to a rhombic or long-wire antenna?

526/603

What is the approximate feed point impedance at the center of a two-wire half-wave folded dipole antenna?

527/603

What is a folded dipole antenna?

528/603

Which of the following describes a G5RV antenna?

529/603

Which of the following describes a Zepp antenna?

530/603

How is the far-field elevation pattern of a vertically polarized antenna affected by being mounted over seawater versus soil?

531/603

Which of the following describes an extended double Zepp antenna?

532/603

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally polarized antenna vary with increasing height above ground?

533/603

How does the radiation pattern of a horizontally-polarized antenna mounted above a long slope compare with the same antenna mounted above flat ground?

534/603

How much does the gain of an ideal parabolic reflector antenna increase when the operating frequency is doubled?

535/603

How can two linearly polarized Yagi antennas be used to produce circular polarization?

536/603

What is the most efficient location for a loading coil on an electrically short whip?

537/603

Why should antenna loading coils have a high ratio of reactance to resistance?

538/603

Approximately how long is a Yagi's driven element?

539/603

What happens to SWR bandwidth when one or more loading coils are used to resonate an electrically short antenna?

540/603

What is an advantage of top loading an electrically short HF vertical antenna?

541/603

What happens as the Q of an antenna increases?

542/603

What is the function of a loading coil in an electrically short antenna?

543/603

How does radiation resistance of a base-fed whip antenna change below its resonant frequency?

544/603

Why do most two-element Yagis with normal spacing have a reflector instead of a director?

545/603

What is the purpose of making a Yagi's parasitic elements either longer or shorter than resonance?

546/603

Which matching system for Yagi antennas requires the driven element to be insulated from the boom?

547/603

What antenna matching system matches coaxial cable to an antenna by connecting the shield to the center of the antenna and the conductor a fraction of a wavelength to one side?

548/603

What matching system uses a short length of transmission line connected in parallel with the feed line at or near the feed point?

549/603

What is the purpose of the series capacitor in a gamma match?

550/603

What Yagi driven element feed point impedance is required to use a beta or hairpin matching system?

551/603

Which of these transmission line impedances would be suitable for constructing a quarter-wave Q-section for matching a 100-ohm feed point impedance to a 50-ohm transmission line?

552/603

What parameter describes the interaction of a load and transmission line?

553/603

What is a use for a Wilkinson divider?

554/603

Which of the following is used to shunt feed a grounded tower at its base?

555/603

Which matching system places an inductance across the feed point of a vertical monopole antenna?

556/603

What is the purpose of using multiple driven elements connected through phasing lines?

557/603

What is the velocity factor of a transmission line?

558/603

Which of the following has the biggest effect on the velocity factor of a transmission line?

559/603

Why is the electrical length of a coaxial cable longer than its physical length?

560/603

What impedance does a 1/2-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

561/603

What is microstrip?

562/603

What is the approximate physical length of an air-insulated, parallel conductor transmission line that is electrically 1/2 wavelength long at 14.10 MHz?

563/603

How does parallel conductor transmission line compare to coaxial cable with a plastic dielectric?

564/603

Which of the following is a significant difference between foam dielectric coaxial cable and solid dielectric coaxial cable, assuming all other parameters are the same?

565/603

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

566/603

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is shorted at the far end?

567/603

What impedance does a 1/8-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

568/603

What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to an RF generator when the line is open at the far end?

569/603

Which of the following can be calculated using a Smith chart?

570/603

What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart?

571/603

Which of the following is often determined using a Smith chart?

572/603

What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

573/603

Which of the following is a common use for a Smith chart?

574/603

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the name for the large outer circle on which the reactance arcs terminate?

575/603

On the Smith chart shown in Figure E9-3, what is the only straight line shown?

576/603

How is a Smith chart normalized?

577/603

What third family of circles is often added to a Smith chart during the process of designing impedance matching networks?

578/603

What do the arcs on a Smith chart represent?

579/603

In what units are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated?

580/603

When constructing a Beverage antenna, which of the following factors should be included in the design to achieve good performance at the desired frequency?

581/603

Which is generally true for 160- and 80-meter receiving antennas?

582/603

What is receiving directivity factor (RDF)?

583/603

What is the purpose of placing an electrostatic shield around a small-loop direction-finding antenna?

584/603

What challenge is presented by a small wire-loop antenna for direction finding?

585/603

What indicates the correct value of terminating resistance for a Beverage antenna?

586/603

What is the function of a Beverage antenna's termination resistor?

587/603

What is the function of a sense antenna?

588/603

What type of radiation pattern is created by a single-turn, terminated loop such as a pennant antenna?

589/603

How can the output voltage of a multiple-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

590/603

What feature of a cardioid pattern antenna makes it useful for direction-finding antennas?

591/603

What is the primary function of an external earth connection or ground rod?

592/603

When evaluating RF exposure levels from your station at a neighbor's home, what must you do?

593/603

Over what range of frequencies are the FCC human body RF exposure limits most restrictive?

594/603

When evaluating a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, the operators and licensees of which transmitters are responsible for mitigating over-exposure situations?

595/603

What hazard is created by operating at microwave frequencies?

596/603

Why are there separate electric (E) and magnetic (H) MPE limits at frequencies below 300 MHz?

597/603

What is meant by "100% tie-off" regarding tower safety?

598/603

What does SAR measure?

599/603

Which of the following types of equipment are exempt from RF exposure evaluations?

600/603

When must an RF exposure evaluation be performed on an amateur station operating on 80 meters?

601/603

To what should lanyards be attached while climbing?

602/603

Where should a shock-absorbing lanyard be attached to a tower when working above ground?

603/603